Hello everyone, Would anyone mind having a read through my answers below to see if i'm on the right tracks? I'm looking at the meaning/function and form of the sentence/underlined words! With many thanks!! Fiona is very

1. There is no objection to the use of time words with the past perfect tense. The objection is when these words are used with the present perfect tense. You may, however, if you wish, replace "last week" with "the previous

They had to have that specially made? The sentence is in the past tense. Since English lacks verbs for situations in which person A does something for person B on person B's request, a rather long and awkward structure is used instead: to have

sentence number one "who broke the window" contains a primary form of a verb, the preterite "broke". The second sentence contains a secondary form, the past participle "broken", plus the auxiliary "have".

(1) Yes, it is the present perfect of an auxiliary: We SHOULD (aux.) + HAVE BEEN + there by now. (2) No, it is not called "perfect" by grammar books. (2) He + used (verb) + TO HAVE (infinitive) + crooked teeth. "To have"

Hi, The latter. The Present Perfect uses the auxiliary 'have' and the past participle of the main verb. Clive

Hi Anon What sort of course are you doing? Are you familiar with the names of vebs tenses? (simple present, present continuous, present perfect, simple past, etc.)

Hi Anon: If you look in any English language reference book under verb tenses, you will find the answer to your question. "be" is a helping verb (auxilliary) for the passive voice of verbs, and "have" is the helping verb for

"If you knew what I had gone through, you would surely pity me." Can I change had into have in the sentence above? No. If you possibly can, you need to keep all the parts of the sentence in the same point of view with regard to