In Pronouns^x, Negations^x

Here are some examples The main point is to explain the correct answerThe sentences are little-bit childisch ;they are some modified sentences. I am afraid that my explanations seems to be a little childisch, too. So please help me how to turn it into the right explanation. Mary was real angry...

I agree with your analysis regarding the character of the two dictionaries. If change equal degradation, English was ruined hundreds of years ago. There are countless examples of that: the use of the auxiliary do in questions and negations, the use of s as a nearly universal plural ending, the...

Do existed in Old English more than a thousand years ago as a regular verb and meant to cause. It is impossible to say who introduced it to English. It's use as an auxiliary in questions and negations was established in Shakespeare's day when it was correct to say bothI know not himandI...

1. None for me. The negation is in the pronoun. You negate (wanting) the object. 2. Not for me. The negation is in the verb. You negate the action of giving the object to you.

MrPedantic wrote:It interests me that some modern languages have at least the appearance of greater simplicity (e.g. the loss of inflection) than their counterparts of 900 years ago. This seems counter-intuitive: you would expect a language to evolve towards (not from) complexity.Hello MrPAs far...

It's fine. What do you suggest instead? It means, in rough indicatives (which isn't the same, but just to talk about the pronoun and the situation): I do not want that someone/somebody is/becomes hurt. Using the correct subjunctive: I do not want that someone/somebody be hurt....

Speaking only of modern spoken English, the negation in questions can only appear before the subject if it is in contracted form (n't). Whether the subject is a noun or a pronoun is irrelevant. CJ

Dear Mirium, I'm sorry for that breathless post. Are you any better now? Have you caught some Z's? You didn't misunderstand my question at all, this is what I need. I understand the meanings of this ambiguous sentence, and I was trying to analysize it from a grammatical point of view. I'm...

Pastel, I have a headache already! ~L~ Let's go step by step I agree with what you said about the first pair of sentences (me/I do). Your other example, "I don't like him as much as you" can certainly be ambiguous; the two interpretations you posted are possible. I agree with your analysis of...

I don't like him as much as you. Dear Mirium, here is my analysis. 1-a. She doesn't sing as well as me. 1-b. She doesn't sing as well as I do. In 1-a, an object pronoun is used after 'as', according to Michael Swan, this is an informal style, whereas in 1-b, subject+verb is used after 'as',...