Does anyone agree? I agree. Nevertheless, progress in both aspects seems to occur in parallel. I think improvement in one stimulates improvement in the other. When a student practices the correct pronunciation of grammatical sentences, both the

I've been struggling to notice the difference between these two consonants but as spanish speaker I'm so used to pronounce them as if they were only one sound. If I spoke fast, would it matter? I know the difference according to what

I've been away from this forum for a while, and meantime I've enrolled for a five-year (gulp!) degree in English (which includes grammar, literature, linguistics, and so on) at a distance university. Right now I'm starting to delve

1. Have you ever thought about retaining some aspects of your first language Generally speaking, no, because English is a separate language. Of course it's easy to make mistakes because of the influence of my native language, but as I said, I

hi Ben, Polish phonology is rather adventurous, that's right. But it does not make English any simplier. It is just that with some languages you have to be able to produce special sounds and train your hearing to understand them (e.g. Polish,

Two years too late, the correct way to use the idiom is "all of a sudden." American and British use of quotations is also different. Americans are taught for the most part that a period (full-stop) is used inside the quote, unless used

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As per the dictionary, "before" is pronounced as / b -fôr/ and "behind" is pronounced as / b -h nd/ (in AmE and BrE). But couple of times, I've heard my European friends say "ba-fore" and "ba-hind". And

You are also right on me not being a native speaker. If I may ask, how did you find out? I cheated. I didn't hear it, I read it. Anyway, as I said, if I hadn't known that, I would not have thought you were a non-native speaker of English,