http://www.englishforums.com/search/pro.htm?q=tag%3aPronunciation+tag%3aDifference+Between+tag%3aWhomSearch results for 'tag:Pronunciation tag:Difference Between tag:Whom' matching tags 'Pronunciation', 'Difference Between', and 'Whom'en-USXMOD (Build: 3715.30106)http://www.englishforums.com/English/ImGoingMarryWhatever/zwgrq/post.htm#459436Wed, 02 Jan 2008 11:38:21 GMT946f00bb-57d3-4b7b-a9a2-059b5341af52:459436yankeeMilky wrote: CalifJim wrote: A native tells me that it does occur in such as the second example. The native must have misunderstood the question. Does it No. , and if it does, why? And is it widespread? No. "gonna" has to be followed by a verb. London isn't a verb! I'm gonna London is totally impossible! CJ I don't think the native American English speaker misunderstood Molly's question: I do. Or else he/she wasn't being very precise with variations in pronunciation. Or maybe he/she isn't actually a native speaker of American English. This is his answer to her above question: <<What do you mean "only occurs"? If you use it, and it's understood by your interlocutor (um, that's the person to whom youhttp://www.englishforums.com/English/VowelLengthsInEnglish/3/mwxmz/Post.htm#1047138Wed, 10 Nov 2004 13:16:48 GMT946f00bb-57d3-4b7b-a9a2-059b5341af52:1047138jonathan jordanI'm pretty sure I *do* understand the difference between sounds and written symbols, and recognize that English is usually does ... in Spanish. I'd assumed then it a phonemic transcription would be something like /geit/. The phoneme would then be /ei/. Indeed, it's often given a diphthongal transcription, such as /eI/. I gather however that, perhaps in some accents more than others, the 'e' sound itself differs slighty from that in ... vowel in "get". Maybe this "tense"/"lax" distinction is not especially strong in my accent, or even Australian accents in general. It makes sense that it wouldn't be. But there are quite a lot of us for whom the vowel in "gate" is either...http://www.englishforums.com/English/ButtiesAreEdibleInEngland/6/lbmjk/Post.htm#933032Tue, 08 Jun 2004 20:41:46 GMT946f00bb-57d3-4b7b-a9a2-059b5341af52:933032aaron j. dinkinIt's been said that Alastair Cooke sounded English to Americans ... mid-Atlantic. Angela Lansbury, I gather, is also a good example. No, I think there's a difference between what sounds to an American like an "English" accent (Cooke) and what sounds to an American like an American accent that sounds almost like an English accent. There is, but I suppose they both can be described as mid-Atlantic. Lansbury may be an example of the latter (along with John Daly), but I'm not sure. I don't think so. Lansbury sounds "English" to me, though I know enough about accents to notice the strong American influences in her pronunciation which make me suspect that she's mid-Atlantic. The first example of the...http://www.englishforums.com/English/TrilledR/5/kqxdb/Post.htm#925960Tue, 01 Jun 2004 17:36:30 GMT946f00bb-57d3-4b7b-a9a2-059b5341af52:925960aaron j. dinkinNot at all (though that may be the use of ... in "cut" in the most conventionally standard varieties of English. Well, I wasn't being entirely serious. But I'm sure I've read something that implied that the 19th century RP "cut" ... the IPA symbol, and that that was at least part of the reason for the way that (V) is used. That's certainly possible. But I'd suggest that a contributing factor to the reason (V) is still used, after all that time, instead of being replaced by a symbol that represents a central vowel, is phonological theory's general indifference between central and back vowels. Whatever the reason, it seems to me to be potentially confusing. How would you write a vowel used in...http://www.englishforums.com/English/NewPageSitePronunciationNewsgroup-ContributorsNames/15/wgqcv/Post.htm#715950Tue, 21 Oct 2003 03:59:42 GMT946f00bb-57d3-4b7b-a9a2-059b5341af52:715950aaron j. dinkinI believe that what Jerry is referring to is the ... this, but a recording by Mr. Hamm may prove enlightening. You can be skeptical, but it's the case: I (in general) have /A/ before a voiced stop (and in ) and /a/ before a voiceless one. That doesn't mean that /A/ and /a/ are different phonemes for you. Can you think of any pair of words, or possible words, that would be distinguished by having /A/ in one and /a/ in the other? Or words that would rhyme were it not for the difference between /A/ and /a/? (The latter criterion isn't sufficient(1), but it's often useful.) For instance, I have /A/ in "bother" but /a/ in "father". Would you have the same vowel in both? For a minimal pair, I have the same...http://www.englishforums.com/English/SubstituteForAsciiIpa/hxpqj/post.htm#658592Sat, 06 Sep 2003 14:20:01 GMT946f00bb-57d3-4b7b-a9a2-059b5341af52:658592aaron j. dinkinThe Chambers Dictionary (1993 edition) has a pronunciation symbol that they say corresponds to the vowels in "lean, keel, ... query". Is there anyone in the English speaking world who pronounces "here" and "lean" with even approximately the same vowel? My vowels in "here" and "lean" are phonetically approximately the same; and phonemically, they're exactly the same; that is to say, I think of them as the same vowel, and it is only with effort that I'm conscious of the difference between them. The vowels in my "hear" and "lean" are much more similar than those in my "mat" and "man". -Aaron J. Dinkin Dr. Whom