it is an action verb, which justifies the use of have in simple past as a substitution of present perfective in American English Please explain why this might be so. I see no relationship between the two uses. The sentence under consideration

So, is it a matter of regionalism? - No, not with this question . 3) " Did you ever before?" -- I would not use this.- Actually, this is not proper English. Have you ever lived in an English speaking country before? This says: from the

Hi Tim I have to agree with GG. That doesn't sound like any version of English I've ever heard. She's can mean either she is or she has (depending on the context). However, she's does not mean she was -- not in written and also not

Hi Sitifan Whe get means understand, is it acceptable in American English to say "I've gotten it"? I'd say it's possible, but also that it's unlikely you'd hear anybody use it much. I'd say the use of

L'intronato schrieb: But two doubts remain about first subjunctive in english. 1) Is it used only in "that-clauses"? 2) Doesn't it have ... police, I had suggested he go to see a lawyer" (in this case is "handed hslf

In our last episode, , the lovely and talented Christian S.-W. broadcast on alt.usage.english: Hi, today I read the following sentence on (1): The servicemen were shown blindfolded on Iranian television shortly after ... their captors later, as

Sorry for bothering you again with the same sentence but another tense problem has come up since I asked for your help two days ago. Would the following be correct? "Over the past 25 years or so, more and more Americans jumped at quick-fix

When people (usually Americans) say "I got it" (e.g. if ... got it"? I know I am, when I say it. No, Americans say "I got it," with the past tense of "get", and Brits say "I've got it," with the ...

When people (usually Americans) say "I got it" (e.g. if ... got it"? I know I am, when I say it. No, and that's a rather easy one to demonstrate. In US English I get it I got it I have ... think you need to broaden your mind to