why is "two of us IS here" correct? It is not correct. There seems to be a lot of confusion surrounding the side chat that Marius and I had earlier in this thread. The confusion is due to a misinterpretation of a few joking remarks that

I read in : A practical English Grammar page 67 Neither of them knows the way,do they? they say after niether of , we use singular verb so, which is correct: Neither of you have done anything or Neither of you has done anything

According to some english gramma book, It is said that "what clause " can be the subject of the sentence and it is considered as a single entity , so it take singular verb. eg. What he referred to makes me want to follow up.

According to Merriam Webster's Dictionary of (American) English Usage, "Clearly none has been both singular and plural since Old English and still is. If in context it seems like a singular to you, use a singular verb; if it seems like a

English grammar is very messy. Since there is no Language Academy or any similar authority, no one has the authority to determine correct usage. Datum (singular) and data (plural) are Latin words. So many people use the plural word with a singular