By Speak english, Modals

Cool Breeze wrote: Grammarian-bot wrote:Congress is debating a bill requiring certain employers to provide workers with unpaid leave so that they can care for sick or newborn children.I have a serious problem with deciding when to use prepositions before verbs and when not to. Any...

Grammarian-bot wrote:Congress is debating a bill requiring certain employers to provide workers with unpaid leave so that they can care for sick or newborn children.I have a serious problem with deciding when to use prepositions before verbs and when not to. Any help/suggestions.Hi GBThe to in...

Cool Breeze wrote:Hi CocoonThe present infinitive usually refers to the present time or to the future:He is known to be rich.They are known to like chocolate.He must do it tomorrow.Does he speak English? yes,this is clear, but I mean if the first part is in the past. is perf. inf obligatory?...

There are advantages. The sentences above are probably what you want. "to can" is impossible. Modal verbs are defective verbs in that they have no infinitive forms. I didn't understand exactly what you wanted to say in the second part of your post. CJ

I'm taking a course to become an English Teacher in Spain and I have to write a summary of all the lessons I attend during the course. Once I have all the summaries I'll have to hand them in to my teacher and I wouldn't like to have any grammar mistakes. Could you take a look and check everything...

Hello This is a garbage-like posting written by a poor English learner who has been and still now is agonized by subjunctive things which supposedly underlie English collocations. My way of understanding English grammar The English language uses two moods (indicative/subjunctive) and two...

We use 'can' to say that sth is possible or that somebody has the ability to do something. Therefore I generate the following sentences, 1) I can speak English. (ability) 2) The word 'influence' can be a noun or a verb. If the accent falls on the first syllable, it's a noun; if the second, a...

Of course I don't mind your asking I don't know what your first language is, but in my country, Spanish speakers find it difficult too to understand that the "s" is necessary to form the simple present of a verb for the 3rd. person singular. The reason is that we associate the addition of an "s"...

I don't really understand the question either... Konstantin, you're referring to the Conditional with your German example. Indirect speech in German works differently as the Conjunctive has to be used in formal German, which however, can be replaced by the Conditional (would+infinitive). In...