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The subjunctive is apparently still used a bit more often in American English than it is in British English. The most likely time you will see it used is after certain verbs in a that-clause -- though the word "that" is sometimes
ESL General English Grammar Questions
by
yankee
163 days ago
American English, Clauses, Present Tenses, British English, Subjunctives, Present Simple, Adjectives, Writing, Sentences, Countries, United States, United Kingdom, Great Britain, American, Languages
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Hi Tim I have to agree with GG. That doesn't sound like any version of English I've ever heard. She's can mean either she is or she has (depending on the context). However, she's does not mean she was -- not in written and also not
ESL General English Grammar Questions
by
yankee
326 days ago
Simple Present, American English, Tenses, Present Tenses, Subjunctives, Spelling, Past Tenses, Contractions, Animals, United States, United Kingdom, Context, American, Simple Tenses, Languages
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Technically, you should not use "was" -- but you're going to hear that more and more as the subjunctive slowly disappears from American English. We could set up "The Society For the Preservation Of the Use Of the Subjunctive In
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Use "is" if you think there really is a way, but you just don't know how to do it. "Is" is not contrary to fact.
Use "were" if you think there really is NOT a way to do this, and you know it to be contrary to
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'Behind the doors there were to be other chambers, possibly a succession of them, where we should find the coffin lying.' It is a characteristic of British English, and of American English to a lesser extent, and especially in older forms
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Hi, "have" is the "prescriptively correct" one, because it actually and grammatically refers to "languages". Now, the fact is that a lot of native speakers use the singular in those kinds of structures, because they
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Yankee wrote: Just to add a little more confusion to this thread, I'd like to mention that I've also heard this idiom used with 'c a me' (i.e. in a sentence with the same format as a type 2 conditional). I've just never actually heard it used
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New2grammar wrote:
worse comes to
Which of the choices is correct for the common phrase above?
Thanks in advance!
Hi New2grammar,
This should help you clear up any question you may have:
Kenneth G. Wilson
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Hi Goodman You wrote: I have been labeled and called by many descriptions, hinted being “Ignorant” is the first ... I'm not hinting that you're ignorant. I say that if a learner tells me "informal" means "wrong",
ESL General English Grammar Questions
by
goodman
2 yr 45 days ago
Articles, American English, Verbs, Plurals, Dates, Tenses, Numbers, Present Tenses, Expressions, Subjunctives, Past Tenses, Conditionals, Writing, United States, American
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Welcome to English Forums!
You could also use the word "much". (If you used the word "much",) I wouldn't notice a difference in meaning.
The use of "would" almost invariably suggests a condition, whether the condition is stated
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