By Tenses, Modal verbs

Hi, Are these all examples of the first conditional? If a if-clause is in the present tense, then any modal verbs can be used and it would still be a first conditional sentence? A zero conditional sentence is the one only states general rules and can't use modal verbs? All first...

Hi, I'm wondering if there's a grammatic or syntactic term ( or just speech part?!) named for the part "feed" (as opposed to "fly") in the sentence below? Counterpart? phrasal verb? Or is it just simply two sentences connected by "and" with the second...

If we follow Swann, we can use need as a modal verb in an affirmative sentence when a 'non-affirmative' word (such as only, hardly, seldom etc.) gives the sentence a negative kind of meaning. Look at Swann's last example: the sentence becomes incorrect when only is removed.That said,...

It's not subjunctive. It's the modal use of need. Modal need can occur in non-assertive contexts. Modals never take the s in the first person singular of the present tense the way non-modal verbs do. In that way they resemble subjunctive forms, which are also missing the s. The...

The modal verbs (like should, would, etc.) don't really have tenses in the same way that other verbs do.You are right, however, that should is like the present, and should have is like the past. Your paraphrases are not really accurate, though.How should he know it? ~ How can we expect him...

That book is right. Modal verbs can be assigned to any time past, present or future. See some of the previous threads on could/can: http://www.englishforums.com/search/could%2bcan.htm

could evolve and could adaptIn that case, you definitely want adapt, not adapted. Modal verbs (and could is one of them) are not followed by past tense or past participle forms. CJ

It was thought (by many) to have been written by Michael.In the above sentence: ''It'' is used as a subject.''was'' is an auxiliary verb showing simple past tense and ''thought'' is a past participle serving the function of the main verb with reference to some past action. ''to have been'', as CB...

Hmm...But why can't I use "any longer" in this case or it's using only in negative way ? And how I understand it's impossible to use can with future tenses and it's implied that "can" relate to present and future, isn't it? If I say : "How can I work hereafter?" Will it be correct?

Linguists often consider endings when determining the number of tenses in a language. The English verb can only take two forms from the viewpoint of tense endings: present: talks and past: talked. The future is formed by adding an extra verb (the modal verb will) in front of the verb --...