Milky wrote: CalifJim wrote: A native tells me that it does occur in such as the second example. The native must have misunderstood the question. Does it No. , and if it does, why? And is it widespread? No. "gonna" has to be followed by a

I'm pretty sure I *do* understand the difference between sounds and written symbols, and recognize that English is usually does ... in Spanish. I'd assumed then it a phonemic transcription would be something like /geit/. The phoneme would

It's been said that Alastair Cooke sounded English to Americans ... mid-Atlantic. Angela Lansbury, I gather, is also a good example. No, I think there's a difference between what sounds to an American like an "English" accent

Not at all (though that may be the use of ... in "cut" in the most conventionally standard varieties of English. Well, I wasn't being entirely serious. But I'm sure I've read something that implied that the 19th century RP

I believe that what Jerry is referring to is the ... this, but a recording by Mr. Hamm may prove enlightening. You can be skeptical, but it's the case: I (in general) have /A/ before a voiced stop (and in ) and /a/ before a voiceless one. That

The Chambers Dictionary (1993 edition) has a pronunciation symbol that they say corresponds to the vowels in "lean, keel, ... query". Is there anyone in the English speaking world who pronounces "here" and "lean" with