Just curious. What does Cambridge say about "ain't"? *gg* That's something I'm also interested in...

Right, English used to ditinguish between subjects and objects by using a suffix such as Latin did, but gave up this tradition to follow an analytical structure (often: preposition + noun, noun here in a widened sense) that also required a fixed

What does CGEL stand for?

If the introducing part of the sentence is in present or present perfect tense, then the reported speech - part keeps the original tense: The state dept 'has said' that the US "is" cutting aid... If the introducing part is in past or past

We don't know when "exactly" it was, what we do know, is that it is over. It took place some time in the past.

(p.p. of drink). Cheers, Pemmican

Imagine you would have a problem and you'd ask me for help, if my answer is a) "How can I help you out?" --> this would mean that there are several things that I know of that I can do for you , I would answer: "How can I help you out?". b)

This is interesting: In the Danish and Swedish and also in French, the "Y" indeed " />IS a vowel!! (his might be true for some other languages as well.) Greetings -Pemmican

"If I was in London, I may visit the queen." It is the tenses which are all in pathetic disarray! "was" is past; "may" is present. JTT: No, "was" is past tense FORM, CJ; big difference. This 'was' clearly points to a unreal now/future

Just to be sure: Need as a modal auxiliary is only possible in its negation, am I right? Or are there any examples for "need" used as an auxiliary in non-negated sentences? Thanks