It ’s not a matter of Moore’s knowing that there’s a hand there, but rather that we should not understand him if he were to say “Of course I may have erred about this”. We should ask “What is it like to make such an error as that?” – e.g.

Ah, I think I understood now. We know a person is sick, and we get to know it usually before that person is lying on his bed. However, he might be NOT sick anymore when he SAYS it! You cannot KNOW that a person is sick WHEN you SAY it. Thus there

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Moore_paradox

But probably my interpretation is not perfect. I am trying to make sense of this sentence here: " So I don't know, then, that there is a sick man lying here?"--which I can't right now. Must have something to do with Moore's

Neither the question nor the assertion makes sense. This means: Whether you frame the thought as a question ("Do I know that a sick man is lying here?") or as an assertion ("I know that a sick man is lying here."), it makes no

Thank you. However, is it correct to refer to the sentence-- which is a question-- as an assertion?

Thank you. Does the same rule apply after "I think"?

Thank you. However, I heard "I wish I know" is incorrect and the correct form was "I wish I knew". Why is that?

What is the present subjunctive form of the verb to know?

12. "--For "I know" seems to describe a state of affairs which guarantees what is known, guarantees it as a fact. One always forgets the expression "I thought I knew'." I am asking because the author seems to only