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Hello,

Please explain wat is in red:

Researchers have proved that memory doesn't exist in one specific part of the brain, or does it depend - as we thought before- on biofeedback or alpha states or special breathing.

1/ is it a question? why is it inverted? or is it rhetoric?

2/ is using hyphens here as using commas ?

3/ why did he used "or" twice? why didn't he used the way English is written, (I mean X, Y or Z.).



Thank you.
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>did he used
did he use

>X, Y or Z
This can be written (in English):
X or Y or Z (allows for more pause during reading the sentence and thinking about it)

Next time, pls post the link so we would not have to find itEmotion: sad

Also, you made a mistake in copying/typing: it's "nor does it depend"

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http://www.optimalearning.com/readings_delehanty.htm

"In the West," explains Barzakov, "we are not trained to think globally or holistically. But the learning process does not consist of pieces of information or pieces of analysis. The learning process is a whole. Researchers have proved that memory doesn't exist in one specific part of the brain, nor does it depend - as we thought before - on biofeedback or alpha states or special breathing. Memory depends on comprehension. Memory, analysis and comprehension are all one process."
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The original is correct. This inversion after nor is idiomatical, you can call it rhetorical.
Comments  
Aw, I'm really sorry. I didn't know that this was published on the net. I typed it from a book i'm translating and it said (or does it depend) in the book, so it's a typing mistake.

Thank you for your help. I'm sorry again for waisting your time searching Emotion: sad