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This has always been an issue for me, and I wonder if anyone has a simple and clear answer to help me with.

Which of the following sentences is/are correct?

(a) I have not heard back from her since then.

(b) I do not hear back from her since then.

(c) I did not hear back from her since then.

I understand if EVERYTHING happened in the past, (c) is probably correct (is it?).

But what if everything is currently ongoing. For example, I contacted her 3 months ago, and up to now, I still do not hear from her.

In this case, should I use (a), or (b) (or neither?)?

Any help? Thanks
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SeraphinThis has always been an issue for me, and I wonder if anyone has a simple and clear answer to help me with.

Which of the following sentences is/are correct?

(a) I have not heard back from her since then. ok

(b) I do not hear back from her since then. No

(c) I did not hear back from her since then. No

I understand if EVERYTHING happened in the past, (c) is probably correct (is it?). no

But what if everything is currently ongoing. For example, I contacted her 3 months ago, and up to now, I still do not hear from her.I still have not heard from her


In this case, should I use (a), or (b) (or neither?)? Neither


Any help? Thanks

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(a) is correct, and means that she has not contacted you in all the time between "then" and now.

(b) is incorrect.

(c) sounds quite wrong to me, but Google Book Search indicates that a few authors think it's acceptable. I don't know what it could mean other than (a).

Edit: "Since" means "between then and now", so you can't use it to refer to a period lying wholly in the past that also ended in the past. Sorry, this is wrong. I forgot about the form "I hadn't heard back from her since..." which CalifJim mentioned in his reply, in which the "now" point is shifted back in time.
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Comments  
Thanks for the prompt reply. 
But isn't it ALSO a FACT that I DO NOT hear from her. Although in terms of time continuum, the fact started from the past

and is still valid currently, can we use the "fact" as a stand-alone and use "do not" instead of "have not" - I do not know if

I am making any sense, but hopefully someone smarter can understand what I am trying to say.

ps. If the answer to the last question is neither, doesn't this mean that even "I have not heard from her since" is not correct?
 Mr Wordy's reply was promoted to an answer.
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(a) I have not heard back from her since then.

(b) I do not hear back from her since then.

(c) I did not hear back from her since then.

(a) Perfect.
(b) Impossible in English. Many languages allow this, but not English. In English you have to use (a) when you want this meaning.
(c) Maybe. It seems to be a variant of I had not heard back from her since then, which is preferable in my opinion. This is entirely from the past point of view, and is the backshift of (a):
He said that he [had not heard / ???did not hear] back from her since then.
CJ