・She is everything to him.

・She is all to him.

Does the second one sound OK? If it does, does it mean the same as the first one?

There is nothing ungrammatical in She is all to him and in theory it has the same meaning as She is everything to him. However, it is wrong for the simple reason that people don't use it. English is a very peculiar language. Words often have to be used the same way everybody else uses them and there is very little choice.

I have been told by native speakers that native speakers don't use the infinitive as the grammatical subject. I know it's not very common, but it does happen. Tina Sinatra said about his father: "To be with him was exhilarating." Also, uncommon words may sound unnatural to native speakers. This means that even though English has a very large vocabulary, many of those words are unnatural and rarely or seldom used. There is no way a native speaker can talk naturally about linguistic idiomaticity, for example, because there is no natural word for it in English.

CB

I have been told by native speakers that native speakers don't use the infinitive as the grammatical subject.


Sounds like he is singing using the subjective infinitive here (It starts at 3:01).


youtube.com/watch?v=nh5fziONXYU


Incidentally, this clip has made me wonder about the usage of "all".



Site Hint: Check out our list of pronunciation videos.

Oops! Sorry CB. I thought I posted the messages at "Grammar&Sentence Structure."


I've found myself in a wrong place.


Let me post the question there.