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Good morning,

I'd like to ask you please what question tag is correct, please, if I state :

I'm a truefriend of yours, amn't I ?

or

I'm a true friend of yours, aren't I ?

Thank you indeed for your kind reply & best regards,

Elena Succo
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Comments  (Page 2) 
This is a very interesting writeup on its origin.

http://www.worldwidewords.org/qa/qa-amn1.htm
May the respected one help me.

Is _amin't i word corrected

May the respected one help me and solve it as fast as possible

Thanking you waiting for your reply
Yours truly,

Xyz.
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Use aren't I.
I can assure you that "amn't I" does exist, and it is used all the time in a few English dialects. It is neither "thought up", nor incorrect; in fact, it's a rational and justifiable choice. "Aren't I" seems irrational to me, in purely logical terms; if I were to say "I are", I would be regarded as being in the wrong.

Compare: I am, am I not? I am, amn't I?; I are, are I not? I are, aren't I?

Even Chrome's built-in spelling checker objects to my usage of the term "amn't" by underlining the word with ugly red squiggles. I'd never object to usage of "aren't I", but I weary of being corrected when I use what I consider to be the rational form.

Rather than "aren't I" being absolutely "correct", in my opinion it's accepted because of its extensive usage (apart from in Ireland and Scotland). I wonder when and where this deviation first occurred.

It may have something to do with the fact that the verb "to be" is the only verb in English where the second person singular conjugal stem (you are) differs from that of the first person singular (I am), as far as I can see. I was unable to think of a single exception. Compare: I go, you go, etc.
Actually... amn’t (which is short for am not) may be unfamiliar to most of us, but it isn’t entirely unknown, though it's almost exclusively found in the inverted form amn’t I. It’s used in Scotland and Ireland, for example. Why the rest of us don’t is a result of shifts in pronunciation that were associated with a loss of favour generations ago.
Amn’t has a long recorded history — the Oxford English Dictionary has an example from a magazine called The Athenian Gazette in 1691, but it was almost certainly known earlier, as many other shortened forms, such as can’t, don’t and shan’t, seem to have arrived in the language around 1600. But it was never as popular as another contraction, an’t. This was probably preferred because speakers disliked putting an m and an n together in one syllable. One of the two was elided away (as happened with the n in column, for example). In this case I’d guess that the n was kept because it matched the other short forms and also signalled negative intent.
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As per the rule of Question Tag.. this is correct. I'm a true friend of yours, aren't I?
Anonymous As per the rule of Question Tag.. this is correct. I'm a true friend of yours, aren't I?
"aren't I?" is idiomatic. You have to accept it or use "am I not?"

See this:http://www.learnersdictionary.com/qa/aren-t-i-or-am-i-not
If you read the thread from the beginning, you'll see that 'anm't I' is widely accepted in many dialects.
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Rover_KE'anm't I' is widely accepted in many dialects.
Also in writing?
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