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Can the apostrophe be used to show possession ofa subject that is a proper noun or any noun. Example- The Board expects to meet its' goals.
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Comments  (Page 3) 
Hello Paul,

I agree with you that the moderators here should be more careful with their posts.
Thousands of people come to this site and read the old posts looking for help.
They have a right to expect that posts sent by moderators are correct.

Please let me know if you ever see any errors in my posts and I will edit them.
I suppose I was surprised that no-one had corrected two such errors on a site devoted to the English language in a thread specifically about it's.

- Forums develop over time and are largely useful in retrospect.
They have a right to expect that posts sent by moderators are correct.

- Mistakes are made all the time and discussion generally eliminates them as is the case here!
Why would someone go to the trouble to pretend to quote an authority to sustain a view which is quite incorrect?

- I have no idea why that 'Guest' would post an inaccurate version of the text; nicely noticed though.

You must approach any forum / debate / discussion with the realisation that everybody is learning and rarely does one person have all the answers. But we try.. oohh we tryEmotion: smile

Happy Christmas peeps

btw: Paul - I hope we see more of you at the forums; this type of constructive criticism and debate is much appreciated here.
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I've been following this forum page for a short time now..I've noticed that when you write about ownership(possession), no comment is made about the history of where the apostrophe should go..whether it be e.g. ...'s or s'...the apostrophe for ownership if it is.. 's...replaces one letter...and if it is ...s' ..it is relacing two letters...In all the books I have read....NONE of those printed in the last 15yrs explain WHY..
If I understand your question aright: In the case of " it's " (the contraction for 'it is') the apostrophe represents the elision of one letter, the 'i' of 'is'.

In the case of the possessive, no letter is replaced; it is a different function of the apostrophe. In 'the children's toys', 'the child's toys', 'the boy's toys', and 'the boys' toys', no letter has gone missing; the apostrophe is just a possessive marker.

Does this answer your question?
...moreover, 'it's' as a contraction of 'it has' lacks two letters.
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Mike In JapanIn that case 'The board expect to meet their goals'
But it still doesn't sound right to me.
Should it be " the board" expects to meet....."? After all, the "board" is still a singular unit, although it's made up with members. Just my opinion...Emotion: smile
'Board' is a collective noun. It is my understanding that in British English (or International English, as I like to call it), collective nouns can be either singular or plural.

Collective nouns

Cheers
Well, despite the argument about what should or not not be posted here and who is "right", I discovered just the right feedback lanuage I needed to help a sudent gain a much better understanding of when it is appropirate to use "its" and when it is preferable to use "their."

I think that the common theme in this area is to help others learn as much as possible about the topic and to learn all sides of the discussion.
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