Please look at this sentence and identify where the mistake(s) is/are.
" Professor ABC has got two awards since 1990, the one in Literature and the another in Politics."
please help me.
" Professor ABC has received two awards since 1990, one for Literature and one for Politics."


"Since 1990 professor ABC has received awards for both Literature and Politics"
That's an interesting sentence.
So it's correct to say:

1. He got an award in 1995.

but incorrect to say:

2. He's got 2 awards since 1990.

And what about (in AmE):

3. He's gotten 2 awards since 1990?

By the way, I posted a message in the audio forum about 'CAC 40' but there's not much trafic there and I haven't received any answer so far. I would appreciate any help.
Best regards,
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Hi Demi,

"He has got" in BrE denotes ownership or possession, so you don't use the time clause.

"he has got 2 awards" = he owns/ possesses 2 awards. So, understanding the meaning in BrE, it would not be correct to say "he owns 2 awards since 1990," which is why I changed it to 'received'

I belive in AmE the past of 'got' is 'gotten', but we need to wait for an AmE speaker to comment on the structure of the sentence in AmE.
That's correct, Abbie. The past participles are 'gotten' and 'forgotten' in AmE. Nevertheless, the idiom "have got" to mean simply "have" takes "got", not "gotten".

I have (got) a computer on my desk just now. I am using it to respond to this question.
I have gotten/bought a computer this week. It wasn't very expensive.
I have gotten/received three letters from New York this week. They were all short.
I have (got) the three letters on my desk right this minute. Do you want to read them?

So as for D's sentences in American English:

He got an award in 1995. (received it then, simple past, OK)

He's got 2 awards since 1990. (Not OK. "He has got two ..." - so idiomatic "has got" - not usable this way -

It's either "He has gotten two awards since 1990" or "He has got two awards (now)", i.e., either "He has received them" or "He has them (now)". Also possible: "He has had them since 1990".)

He's gotten 2 awards since 1990 (received them since then, past perfect, OK)

So it's a very interesting situation: in

He has .............. two awards since 1990.

you can use GOTTEN, but not GOT, although they are BOTH past participles of 'get'.
It's probably that arbitrariness (I'm afraid to say 'illogicality'...) that makes language such an interesting thing... [:^)]
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The situation seems more illogical in American English, perhaps!

I can also accept the argument that in AmE "got" in the "has got"="has" idiom is so idiomatic and particular to that very expression and no other that it almost ceases to have the status of a past participle.
What about the last part of the sentence? Is it correct to use "the one in ... and the another in...." What i've read a lot of textbooks that two things are mentioned; we normally use one and the other, not the another.
the one in Literature and the another in Politics

You don't want the "the" in either sentence; "one" and "another" are just there to explain "two". Moreover "the another" is not correct, you have both "the" (definite article) and "an" (indefinite article".
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