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I have a question about the use of contractions with a proper name. For example, if I wanted to say/write "Jeff is funny" could I also write/say it as "Jeff's funny" with the use of an apostrophe? If no, what is the rule that defines the use of this?

Thanks in advance! Jamie
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Hi,
Yes, you can do that.
Clive
Yes that is still coorect

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This is incorrect. When using an apostrophe with a proper noun, the apostrophe always indicates a possession.
Anon -
Not true.
The 's can be a contraction for is, just like it's is a contraction for it is.

Bob's a big boy now, isn't he?
Or even "has."
Bob's been growing like a weed!

Where did you learn this "rule" that it's only for possession?
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In regards to a proper noun with 's, with "has" meaning, is that only in certain circumstances. Reason I'm asking is, if you are to say, Bob has a dog, or, Bob has one, with "Bob has", contracted to Bob's, it doesn't make sense. Bob's a dog, Bob's one.

Please excuse my grammer.

Lui.
In those sentences, the verb "got" is implied.

Bob's got a dog. Bob's got one.
AnonymousIn those sentences, the verb "got" is implied.
No, "got" is never implied.

If I say, "Bob's a dog." then I mean that Bob is a dog. You can infer that Bob is the dog's name.

If I say. "Bob's got a dog." then I mean that Bob is a person who owns a dog. (Bob has got a dog)
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