Is it "Call me at anytime" OR "Call me anytime"

In colloquial, we normally use "Call me anytime." But, I think gramatically "at anytime" is right. Am I right?
1 2 3 4 5 6 7
Comments  (Page 5) 
WwwdotcomMore results doesn't mean google is stating one position. All it is is a collective RANKING search engine. This means every single conceivable instance of a search is counted as a hit and ranked. Priority on the word RANKING, not usage or relevance.


Results 1 - 10 of about 166,000 for "contact me anytime".
Results 1 - 10 of about 109,000 for "contact me at any time".

A basis for rejecting "at any time" is that it is the definition of anytime. We use the words, not the definitions.

This supports Pieanne's point.

In the first example, "anytime" is an adverb. It is not preceded by "at".

In the second example, "at any time" is a prepositional phrase, and acts as an adverbial.


Want Bitcoin, but don't know how?

Join millions who have already discovered smarter strategies for investing in Bitcoin. Learn from experienced eToro traders or copy their positions automatically!

KhoffA basis for rejecting "at any time" is that it is the definition of anytime. We use the words, not the definitions.

"At any time" may be a definition of "anytime," but it is also a perfectly acceptable phrase similar to "at this time," "at that time," "at the same time," "at a later time." It is used a lot in legal contexts: "Did you ever, at any time, before or after the murder, suspect that your husband was involved in any way?"
As Khoff demonstrates here, "anytime" and "at any time" do not entirely overlap. The sense of "at any time" in the sentence above, for instance, is "at a particular time".

In BrE at least, it would not be possible to use "anytime" in place of "at any time" in this context.

Cf. "at any time of the night". "Of the night" requires a preceding noun here; so the adverb "anytime" doesn't fit.

Teachers: We supply a list of EFL job vacancies
WwwdotcomWhy have an entry for a word if we are going to use its definition instead? Should we say "four sides" instead of square?

Strictly speaking, "four sides" doesn't = "square"...

Sorry, don't see it. Which dictionary are you using?

...most usable combinations of two words do not have distinct entries in the dictionary.....



One entry found for anytime.

Main Entry: any·time
Pronunciation: 'e-nE-"tIm
Function: adverb
: at any time whatever


ONE DISTINCT ENTRY IN THE DICTIONARY WHICH USES THE PHRASE "ANY TIME". Why have an entry for a word if we are going to use its definition instead? Should we say "four sides" instead of square? At which point do we ditch the definitions and use 1 word which would make communication more efficient?

But the definition of "anytime" isn't "at any time". It's "at any time whatever".

PacoI noticed there is a usage difference between "at any time" and "anytime".
We can put "at any time" at the head of a sentence, but can't "anytime".

(o) At any time you can access EnglishForums
(x) Anytime you can access EngilshForums

Subtle, but interesting.


WwwdotcomA) Yo dude!!! So, when we going to bar man????

B) Anytime you're ready bro!!!
"Anytime" in example B stands for "whenever". The meaning is therefore different from the examples in Paco's post.

Students: Are you brave enough to let our tutors analyse your pronunciation?
WwwdotcomThe reason for my GENERAL SUGGESTION is as follows:

1 I bought a shirt. (BASE SENTENCE) You can even have a sentence with just subject and verb (I ate).

2 At 12:00, I bought a shirt.

3 I bought a shirt at 12:00.

If we stop the sentence short in 2 at the comma, we don't know the subject nor the verb.
If we stop the sentence short in 3 at bought, we do know the subject and verb.

Any additional information goes to expand on the base sentence. This is something you can find in any logic book. Longer sentences can be trimmed down to a base sentence.
Why does the fact that we can "stop these sentences short" have any bearing on the use of adverbial prepositional phrases?

Are you saying that a sentence where the subject and verb are stated at the beginning of the sentence is superior in some way to a sentence where they're not?

A general rule is still a rule. Learn to read the intent of my words, not how you want to spin them. I have also for your sake made it bold red in the past stating it was a GENERAL SUGGESTION. I never said that if you use at, in, or on in the beginning of a sentence you are going to jail.


What is this general rule, and where is it formulated?

By the way, I found this interesting sentence on your "Purdue University" site:

"You can mail us at any time at Email Removed."

I think you'd better talk to them about your "never use the definition" rule.

Change in Discussion


Now you are going off on a tangent from the position of at, in, and/or on and addressing the interpretation of the whole sentence.

Mr. Pedantic has quoted me addressing a sentence being read when we only look at part of the sentence, and he is now addressing how the whole of the sentence could be read with respect to the position of the above 3 prepositions of time.



This fallacy is committed when someone introduces irrelevant material to the issue being discussed, so that everyone's attention is diverted away from the points made, towards a different conclusion.


You have yet to support your claims and yet to stop only addressing my points with red herring responses.

I've addressed your points, W3.

Good luck.

Try out our live chat room.
MrPedanticI've addressed your points, W3.

Good luck.


I have addressed your points, I have cited examples, and I have given sources written by qualified professionals. I have gone to other ESL teachers and asked them to refute it. They saw it exactly the same way as I did. You have yet to cite your sources, address the points I made, or even recognize them.
Show more