Can we replace bare infinitive with a Gerund.

Also when is it recommended to interchangealbly use--to+infinitive and gerund and when not.


Sometimes you can but generally, you can't. You have to learn the specific uses of each form.

A few catenative verbs take either the -ing form or the to-infinitive with no change in meaning.

e.g. "like"

I like to play tennis.
I like playing tennis.

Here is a good resource: https://www.thoughtco.com/to-infinitive-meaning-1692471

Students: Are you brave enough to let our tutors analyse your pronunciation?

Sure, understood your point.

I have two questions

1. I have heard(verbs) him(object) speak(complement).

Heard -- takes bare infinitive as object, but in sentence above speak is not an object but rather objects complement, so does it apply to complement/phrase following the object as well.

2. in book it says, we have to use gerund after possessive, eg. I have done my schooling from France, I don't like your bossing me around

But 'thank you for your reply' and many other examples, doesn't fit this idea can you please explain?

anonymousbut rather objects complement, s

That is wrong.

An object complement renames or modifies the object.

We elected him president. (President is the same person, as "him". It is a different label for the same person.)
He was nominated speaker of the house.

We painted the house green. (Green modifies "house" It is the new color of the house.)
The bully called me stupid. (Stupid me!)


Let's consider your sentence:

1. I have heard him speak. / 1. I have heard him speaking. (There is no renaming or modification. Verbs do not modify or rename nouns. Speak is not an object complement.)

One way to analyse this is that the non-finite clause (him speak/speaking) is the complement of the verb "heard".

anonymouswe have to use gerund after possessive

No, regular nouns come after the possessive form. A gerund is not required. In these sentences, car, pocketbook and dog are common nouns

Jim's car
Marie's pocketbook
her pet dog.

In very old traditional grammar (c. 1900), a gerund was considered functionally equivalent to a noun. Before a noun, the possessive form is used, so, by logical analogy, these grammarians reasoned that the possessive form was requisite before a gerund, and there is a concept of a possessive subjective form:

Jim's singing
Jim's singing is admired by everyone.

Unfortunately, this is old-fashioned theory and does not hold in all cases. Where the "gerund" has a strong affinity to being a noun form, it is true. When the gerund is stronger as a verb, the possessive form is not used.

I like John's singing. (possessive)
Our meeting was positive.

I hate people smoking in my house. (not people's)
His wife hates Jim singing in the shower at 6 am.

Sure, thanks a lot.

Just one last query, please answer this as well.

In this case(verb--heard) --I heard him speak (Infinitive) and speaking (gerund) are both of these correct?

This verb can take both Gerund and infinitive, correct?

Most patriotic speech I have heard him give/giving (both are correct)?

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anonymousspeaking (gerund)

It is not a gerund. It is a present participle.

anonymousI heard him speak (Infinitive) and speaking (gerund) are both of these correct?

Yes, it is typical of verbs of perception: see, feel, observe, and a few others.

The context for using the two forms is different.

I heard him speak. (verb of perception)
I heard him speaking.

Just before the man died, his wife heard him speak. She thought he said, "I love you." (a one-time action.)

I heard the president speaking to his aide. (a continuing action)

anonymousMost patriotic speech I have heard him give/giving (both are correct)?


That was the most patriotic speech I have heard him give. (the action is complete in the past. It is not continuing.)

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In article above infinitive and gerunds are listed as object complement.

Butb as explained above Infinitive are not object complement, can you please have a look at it.

So not sure about it.