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There is really tricky problems in identifying the subtle differences between seemingly similar sentences like the below.

(a) Joe helped Mary make a pizza.

(b) Joe helped Mary to make a pizza.

In one book, it says that an expert named Bolinger says (a) is immediate assistance and (b) is mediate assistance because 'bare-infinitive' in (a) - make - means 'coincidence' with the verb 'help' and 'to-inf' in (b) to make means 'future.'

What I want to know is

1. Do you natives really feel that way?

2. If not, please read this.

This is what I think. These two sentences has little, if any, differences between themselves. Because I believe language doesn't have any pre-decided rules.

If people pre-decided 'bare-infinitive' should be used in 'coincident' context and 'to-inf' in 'future' sense, so we should use 'bare-inf' in the sentence like 'Mary made her husband clean the bathroom,' HOW this idiom Money makes the mare to go is possible and still is used?

I mean, if there was a rule that prevented the use of 'to-inf' with causitive verb 'make' how was the idiom possible?

So I think people used 'to-inf' in the first place and then as English require complex nuances, there emerged 'bare-inf' with other nuances.

What do you think of my theory?
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Stenka25

There is really tricky problems in identifying the subtle differences between seemingly similar sentences like the below.

(a) Joe helped Mary make a pizza.

(b) Joe helped Mary to make a pizza.

In one book, it says that an expert named Bolinger says (a) is immediate assistance and (b) is mediate assistance because 'bare-infinitive' in (a) - make - means 'coincidence' with the verb 'help' and 'to-inf' in (b) to make means 'future.'

What I want to know is

1. Do you natives really feel that way?

2. If not, please read this.

This is what I think. These two sentences has little, if any, differences between themselves. Because I believe language doesn't have any pre-decided rules.

If people pre-decided 'bare-infinitive' should be used in 'coincident' context and 'to-inf' in 'future' sense, so we should use 'bare-inf' in the sentence like 'Mary made her husband clean the bathroom,' HOW this idiom Money makes the mare to go is possible and still is used?

I mean, if there was a rule that prevented the use of 'to-inf' with causitive verb 'make' how was the idiom possible?

So I think people used 'to-inf' in the first place and then as English require complex nuances, there emerged 'bare-inf' with other nuances.

What do you think of my theory?
These are examples of the "causative" construction (cause someone to do something) and are not related to your original question. And to answer that original question,I see no difference in meaning between the two sentences.

Comments  
To me, there is no difference in meaning between the two sentences.
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 Philip's reply was promoted to an answer.
As Philip said, I agree that the example you gave pertains to the causative construction.

about

So I think people used 'to-inf' in the first place and then as English require complex nuances, there emerged 'bare-inf' with other nuances

I believe that it is a fairly strong claim to decide that "to-inf" precedes the "bare-inf" without proving it through examples (both synchronically and diachronically).
Hello

I am Scottish and a TEFL teacher. The two sentences mean the same, there is no difference whether you use to inf or not. It is past tense. No ref. to future or coincidence. Mary made her husband clean the bathroom make means forced (he did not want to do it) Neve heard of that Idiom. More common Idiom is Money makes the world go round.

Hope this is of help to you.
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In Old English there was a real infinitive (bare) -- e.g. "fremman" (to do) -- and the "inflected infinitive" -- "to fremmenne" (in order to do). The bare infinitive was used with auxiliaries/modals much as it still is, while the inflected infinitive was used to express purpose and a wide variety of constructions similar to today's. The bare infinitive precedes the inflected variety, the forerunner of today's "to- infinitive". "Help" with another verb has a slightly modal sense which may explain why it can be used without "to".