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The bond of key-relationship, though no longer so abvious as once it was, is yet discovered by a musician; the bond of sympathy is more elusive, and presents itself for recognition to the imagination and the feelings of the listener. Nevertheless, it is an element in every truly great symphony, and I have already indicated how it may sometimes become patent to the ear alone, so it be intelligently employed, and enjoy the co-operation of memory.

Qusetion#1
How do you paraphrase '...
presents itself for recognition to the imagination and the feelings of the listener ?

Question#2
About '
so it be intelligently employed ', why 'be', the bare form? Is it some sort of ellipsis? Could I put 'should' in front of it?

Question#3
How do you paraphrase '
enjoy the co-operation of memory '?

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Comments  (Page 2) 
TakaUh...I think that's a bit hard for my student to understand. Could you please make it a bit easier?
So it must be paraphrased (interpreted) for a student's comprehension? And we should change sympathetic bond to spiritual bond?

How about this, then?

A spiritual connection between music and listeners depends on the listeners' mental ability to associate the sounds with their own experience.

Perhaps, here the underlying concept of bonding spiritually is that one's own life experience must be touched; otherwise, there is no basis for a 'harmonic' relationship.
DavkettHow about this, then?

A spiritual connection between music and listeners depends on the listeners' mental ability to associate the sounds with their own experience.

Perhaps, here the underlying concept of bonding spiritually is that one's own life experience must be touched; otherwise, there is no basis for a 'harmonic' relationship.

Oh!? So, the spiritual bond is different from the bond of sympathy? I thought there was not much difference between them anyway.

Thank you!

By the way, what do you think about this question that I presented to goldmund?

Excuse me, but isn't 'enjoy' the verb for the subject 'it' (i.e it may sometimes become ... and enjoy...)?

Am I wrong??

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Taka
Goldmund
It is a most interesting question. It is perhaps a subjunctive? Emotion: smile

We may then perhaps say «so long as it is intelligently employed and enjoys the cooperation of memory».

Kind regards, Emotion: smile

Goldmund

Excuse me, but isn't 'enjoy' the verb for the subject 'it' (i.e it may sometimes become ... and enjoy...)?
Dear Taka,

It is my opinion that both «be» and «enjoy» are present subjunctive. It is also my opinion that both phrases are provisional. That is to say «so long as it is intelligently employed and so long as it enjoys the cooperation of memory».

I have changed therefore in my paraphrase «be» to «is» and «enjoy» to «enjoys».

It is consistent, I think.

Kind regards, Emotion: smile

Goldmund
GoldmundDear Taka,

It is my opinion that both «be» and «enjoy» are present subjunctive. It is also my opinion that both phrases are provisional. That is to say «so long as it is intelligently employed and so long as it enjoys the cooperation of memory».

I have changed therefore in my paraphrase «be» to «is» and «enjoy» to «enjoys».

It is consistent, I think.

Kind regards, Emotion: smile

Goldmund

Hmm...let's wait for the comments from others.

I still believe that 'enjoy' is the verb for the subject 'it' (i.e it may sometimes become ... and enjoy...).
This would be my question, which goes back to the problem I have with 'to the ear alone'.

How is something obvious 'to the ear alone' if one immediately qualifies that by saying 'as long as it is'? The provisional nature of that phrase is like saying 'it is not obvious to the ear alone, because one's intelligence and memory have to get involved'. The ear does not have intelligence or memory, so when it is operating alone, it is operating without intelligent employment or the cooperation of memory. In which case there can be nothing spiritual going on.

As long as one's intelligence and memory are not at work, the only thing obvious to the ear alone is sensation of vibrations.
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Davkett How is something obvious 'to the ear alone' if one immediately qualifies that by saying 'as long as it is'?


davkett, where does the author say 'as long as it is'?

I think 'patent to the ear' is a metaphor: you just hear it and feel it; you cannot see it on the mere notes.
Takadavkett, where does the author say 'as long as it is'?

Taka, I was responding to Goldmund's paraphrase ('so long as it is'), as you asked of me, and as I would have even if you hadn't asked.

I only misspoke 'as' for 'so'.
OK.

And what about my basic question whether 'enjoy' is the verb for the subject 'it' (i.e it may sometimes become ... and enjoy...) or not?
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TakaI think 'patent to the ear' is a metaphor: you just hear it and feel it; you cannot see it on the mere notes.
I take it by 'see it on the mere notes' you mean 'see it on the page of notations'. Then why would the author say 'sometimes patent'?

(Maybe a musician could have a spiritual connection by reading the notes on the page, but most of us need to first get the ear involved in hearing the performance of those notations.)
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