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Hello,

I´m interested in using the indefinite article with the word "breakfast" and the position of the verb of frequency (in this sentence - never) with "to have breakfast").

I have this sentence. What is possible?:

1) I never have breakfast.

2) I have never breakfast.

3) I never have a breakfast. (A friend of mine says it´s American English if you use a breakfast - without an adjective. - Is it true?)

I would use no article in this case because I know what English Grammer in Use by Murphy says: "We do not normally use the with the names of meals (breakfast, lunch etc.):

What did you have for breakfast?

We had lunch in a very nice restaurant.

But we use a if there is an adjective before breakfast, lunch etc.

We ha a very nice lunch. (not ´we had very nice lunch´)"

I believe the first sentence (I never have breakfast.) is OK. But what do you think about the others?

Thank you for your answers Mowgli
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The first sentence is correct, the second needs another verb: "I have never eaten breakfast" or "I have never had breakfast".

I haven't heard the third used in American English, but we have a few minor dialects, so it might be used outside California.
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Hi Mowgli,

Articles (a,an,the) are not necessary to be added before breakfast,lunch or dinner.

So these sentences hold well:

I never have breakfast

What did you have for breakfast?

In this example of yours, we had a very nice lunch, you are referring to a particular lunch you had which you enjoyed. Hence you need to emphasize on it.

Savvy
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Comments  
1) I never have breakfast.

2) I have never breakfast.

3) I never have a breakfast. (A friend of mine says it´s American English if you use a breakfast - without an adjective. - Is it true?)

1 is fine; the others are not. (Even in the U.S.!) The only case where I could imagine a structure like #2 if you were to say something like "That kid never has a lunch (of his own, to bring to school with him) -- the other kids share their food with him."

Your other examples, and reasoning, are all fine.[C][pl]
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