1: I thought you would’ve finished the project.

2: I thought you would’ve finished the project by now.

I know the sentence is correct. Is sentence 1 the same as sentence 2 even it’s missing ‘by now’? Can ‘by now’ be omitted? Thanks.

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Comments  (Page 2) 

but it's unclear which two past actions you are referring to in the given sentence, and which of the two was supposed to have occurred first.

You say "all", but I don't think it applies so universally. The present perfect, especially, does not usually place an action with respect to another action. Instead, it places an action with respect to present time, i.e., to the time of the utterance of the sentence.

What I meant by two actions is that one action which happens after the other actions work as time expressions, for eg. By then, by tomorrow, by 25th January, by the time he comes back, etc.

1: I thought you would’ve finished the project by the time Jack left the job.

Here, ‘would’ve finished’ is the action that happens before another action which is Jack’s leaving the job. That’s is why I said it’s mandatory to have actions that show time expressions in perfect forms, with any perfect forms.

For present perfect tense, yes it has a time expression.

I have washed my hands.

Of course by common sense, I have washed my hands by the time I am saying this sentence to you. And definitely we only say, ‘I have washed my hands.’.



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anonymousthe other one is future seen in the past.
The tense in question is "past future perfect".