Could someone explain to me why 'of' is used instead of 'by' here?

"It is a truth universally acknowledged, that a single man in possession of a good fortune, must be in want of a wife. However little known the feelings or views of such a man may be on his first entering a neighbourhood, this truth is so well fixed in the minds of the surrounding families that he is considered as the rightful property of some one or other of their daughters."

I think it means the man is considered as the rightful property of their daughters by someone or other.
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No, he is a daughter's property. The of is the possessive of. He considered to be the property of one of the daughters.
Thanks, Mister Micawber. I have doubts about the following sentence too:

"The astonishment of the ladies was just what he wished; that of Mr. Bennet perhaps surpassing the rest;..."

I'm not familiar with the type of use of "that of Mr. Bennet perhaps surpassing the rest". I understand it'll be okay if it is written to be an independent sentence as "that of Mr. Bennet perhaps surpasses the rest", or if you have a clause serving as an adjective to the noun (astonishment)of the preceding sentence, or if you have a clause serving as an adverb to the preceding sentence. Could you please explain the use of "that of Mr. Bennet perhaps surpassing the rest" here.
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I am not sure why you see the usage of this nonfinite clause differently from that of the others you mention, SB. As with the independent clause, that is a pronomial referring to astonishment and of Mr. Bennet an of-possessive:

Are you perhaps disturbed by the semicolons? I am, since the clause between them is not an independent one, and your that of Mr. Bennet perhaps surpassed the rest is what is called for here, according to the punctuation.
Mister Micawber,

Now that you said it a nonfinite clause no different from others, I thought it over, and I'm no more disturbed.Emotion: smile Thank you very much.

I hope you don't mind my asking another question regarding the use of numbers:

"Mr. Bingley thought her quite beautiful, and danced with her twice. Only think of that my dear; he actually danced with her twice! and she was the only creature in the room that he asked a second time. First of all he asked Miss Lucas. I was so vexed to see him stand up with her! but, however, he did not admire her at all: indeed, nobody can, you know; and he seemed quite struck with Jane as she was going down the dance. So he inquired who she was, and got introduced, and asked her for the two next. Then the two third he danced with Miss King, and the two fourth with Maria Lucas, and the two fifth with Jane again, and the two sixth with Lizzy and the Boulanger."

Mrs. Bennet says Mr. Binley first danced with Miss Lucas, asked Jane for the two next, then he dance the two third, two fourth, two fifth and two sixth..

Does 'two third' mean two dances at once? Was it a convention a man had to dance twice with the same partner each time?
"Two third" does indeed refer to the third set of two consecutive dances.

I do not think it was a convention that a man had to dance twice with the same partner, but Mr Bingley is the kind of person who does not seem able to say no to anyone. Therefore once his partner asks him for "one more dance"(as most women would), he cannot refuse. That is just a hypothesis, though.

Anyone who can clear this up?
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Hi, Tearsojoy,

Wouldn't it be too bold for a lady to ask for another dance?
Not having lived in nineteenth-century England, I really wouldn't know Emotion: indifferent

Could someone please enlighten us on this subject?
Ladies did not ask for a dance. They had to wait to be asked. They had little cards and literally 'booked out' each individual dance and made a schedule for their evening.
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