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What is difference between the meaning of the following sentences?

1: I used to play cricket in my spare time.

2: I am used to play cricket in my spare time.

Are these interrogatives of above sentences correct?

1: Do I used to play cricket in my spare time?

2: Am I used to play cricket in my spare time?
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Jackson6612What is difference between the meaning of the following sentences?

1: I used to play cricket in my spare time. In the past, I often played cricket, but I no longer do.

2: I am used to playing cricket in my spare time. I am accustomed to, I normally do, it is my habit

Are these interrogatives of above sentences correct?

1: Do I used to play cricket in my spare time? Did I used to play

2: Am I used to playing cricket in my spare time?
I hope this helps.
Jackson6612What is difference between the meaning of the following sentences?

1: I used to play cricket in my spare time. grammatically correct
Meaning: I played cricket regularly in my spare time in the past, but not anymore.



2: I am used to play cricket in my spare time. grammatically wrong!
Correct version:
I am used to playing
cricket in my spare time.
Meaning: I am accustomed to playing cricket in my spare time. (i.e. I play cricket in my spare time now.)



Are these interrogatives of above sentences correct? No


1: Do I used to play cricket in my spare time?
Did I use to play ...?

2: Am I used to play cricket in my spare time?
Am I used to playing ...?


Edit:
Oops! Sorry, I didn't see Philip's post before I posted.
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Question 1:

Philip said:

1: Do I used to play cricket in my spare time? Did I used to play ...?

Yankee said:

1: Do I used to play cricket in my spare time? Did I use to play ...?

Who is correct, Philip or Yankee?

I will go with Philip.



Question 2:

Both Philip and Yankee said:

I am used to playing cricket in my spare time.

I was told that after to simple Present Tense form is used but playing is not simple Present Tense form of play. What would you say on this?



Question 3:

1: I used to play cricket in my spare time.

2: I was used to play cricket in my spare time.

What is difference between the meaning of above sentences?
Jackson6612Question 1:
Yankee said:

1: Do I used to play cricket in my spare time? Did I use to play ...?


As far as I know, 'did (not) ... use to' is still considered to be the correct form in negative and interrogative sentences. However, I'm also aware that some people disagree with this.

There is a usage note here that supports my view:
http://www.bartleby.com/64/C001/065.html



Question 2:

Both Philip and Yankee said:

I am used to playing cricket in my spare time.

I was told that after to simple Present Tense form is used but playing is not simple Present Tense form of play. What would you say on this?
Most of the time you will find the base form (infinitive) of the verb after the word 'to'. However, certain expressions require the '-ing form'. Some examples of these are:


- be used to doing
- be accustomed to doing
- look forward to doing
- admit to doing
- object to doing





Question 3:

1: I used to play cricket in my spare time. I did this regularly in the past, but don't do it now..

2: I was used to playing cricket in my spare time. Playing cricket in my spare time didn't feel unusual to me because I did it often.

What is difference between the meaning of above sentences?
Yankee
Jackson6612Question 2:

Both Philip and Yankee said:

I am used to playing cricket in my spare time.

I was told that after to simple Present Tense form is used but playing is not simple Present Tense form of play. What would you say on this?
Most of the time you will find the base form (infinitive) of the verb after the word 'to'. However, certain expressions require the '-ing form'. Some examples of these are:


- be used to doing
- be accustomed to doing
- look forward to doing
- admit to doing
- object to doing


As far as I know 'to' is a preposition here (it is not a part of infinitive). So, you cannot use anything else after a preposition but a noun or gerund (-ing form). Hope it helps.
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Hi Jeka

A source of confusion with the "preposition explanation" is that many dictionaries also call the word 'to' a preposition when it is used to indicate the infinitve. For example:

"to
preposition
1 used before a verb to show that it is in the infinitive"
Cambridge Dictionary

Webster's and the American Heritage Dictionary have similar entries.

On the other hand, the OED has a category called "infinitive marker" (rather than 'preposition') for this use of 'to'.
OED
Amy, I learned something here!

As far as I know, 'did (not) ... use to' is still considered to be the correct form in negative and interrogative sentences. However, I'm also aware that some people disagree with this.

There is a usage note here that supports my view:
http://www.bartleby.com/64/C001/065.html

The trouble is that the d in used blends with the t in to, so you really can't tell what's being said.

Thanks!
Definition of preposition in Merriam-Webster's Collegiate Dictionary:

a function word that typically combines with a noun phrase to form a phrase which usu. expresses a modification or predication.

Please explain me above definition with the help of an example. Is preposition always followed by noun/pronoun?

Definition of to in Merriam-Webster's Collegiate Dictionary:

1to: 8 - used as a function word to indicate that the following verb is an infinitive <wants to go> and often used by itself at the end of a clause in place of an infinitive suggested by the preceding context.

How can it be differentiated that whether to is being used as preposition or infinitive in a certain sentence?
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