# Direct Objects, Indirect Objects, Obliques, Dative Movement?

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Can a clause have three different objects?

"Could you give the book to Mike for me?" the book = direct object, Mike = indirect object, me = oblique object
Correct?

in "Mike gave the book to me" the book = direct object, me = indirect object, right?

however, in
"Mike pointed to my tooth" is "my tooth" indirect object or oblique?

in "Mike entered the house" "the house" is direct object, but in
"We have entered upon a new phase in history" "a new phase in history" is what? Oblique?
and in "Mike talked about me" is "me" oblique?

"I sent money to her." "money" = direct object, "her" = indirect object, right? But

"I went to her." "her" is NOT indirect object, nor any other type of object, is it?

So is the Indirect Object always and only the noun phrase that "receives" the direct object of the clause, that is to say, is it the case that without a Direct Object the clause CANNOT have an Indirect Object either?

Someone on this forum said Dative Movement is the operation of moving the indirect object in front the direct object with deletion of 'to'. However, if my above assumptions are true, this would not be the whole truth, for:
in
"I caught a fish for the cat," "a fish" is Direct Object and "the cat" is Oblique, and in
"I caught the cat a fish" the very same sentence seems to have undergone dative movement, and
another such pair is

"They built a house for Harry" and
"They built Harry a house"

so this would suggest that Dative Movement can be used, with ditransitive verbs, not only to do away with 'to' and move the Indirect Object in front of the Direct Object, but also to delete 'for' and move the Oblique in front of the Direct Object. Do y'all agree?
Could you give the book to Mike for me?" the book = direct object,yes Mike = indirect object,yes me = oblique object I haven't heard of it before.
Correct?

in "Mike gave the book to me" the book = direct object, me = indirect object, right? Yes.

however, in
"Mike pointed to my tooth" is "my tooth" indirect object or oblique? It is direct object I think.

in "Mike entered the house" "the house" is direct object, but in Yes.
"We have entered upon a new phase in history" "a new phase in history" is what? Oblique? I would say it is predicator complement.
and in "Mike talked about me" is "me" oblique?sorry I don't know I would just say it is indirect object.

"I sent money to her." "money" = direct object, "her" = indirect object, right? Yes.But

"I went to her." "her" is NOT indirect object, nor any other type of object, is it?Hmm I would say it is direct object.

So is the Indirect Object always and only the noun phrase that "receives" the direct object of the clause, that is to say, is it the case that without a Direct Object the clause CANNOT have an Indirect Object either?Yes I was taught so but I am sure there are exceptions.

Someone on this forum said Dative Movement is the operation of moving the indirect object in front the direct object with deletion of 'to'. However, if my above assumptions are true, this would not be the whole truth, for:
in
"I caught a fish for the cat," "a fish" is Direct Object and "the cat" is Oblique, and in
"I caught the cat a fish" the very same sentence seems to have undergone dative movement, and
another such pair is

"They built a house for Harry" and
"They built Harry a house"

so this would suggest that Dative Movement can be used, with ditransitive verbs, not only to do away with 'to' and move the Indirect Object in front of the Direct Object, but also to delete 'for' and move the Oblique in front of the Direct Object. Do y'all agree? Sorry, I will not be able to do any comment on dative object.

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Doll"Mike pointed to my tooth" is "my tooth" indirect object or oblique? It is direct object I think.

"I went to her." "her" is NOT indirect object, nor any other type of object, is it? Hmm I would say it is direct object.

Let me disagree with the comments in pink.

To put it simply, a "direct object"
- can only be the object of a transitive verb,
- answers the question "who?" or "what?"
- is not preceded by any preposition.
More on direct objects here: http://www.ucl.ac.uk/internet-grammar/function/dirobj.htm

I would say that "my tooth" is a prepositional object ( ).
Hmm, I didn't know anything about prepositional object before.Thanks for your information and what about I went to her?
"Mike gave me the book" the book = direct object, me = indirect object Yes.

"Mike gave the book to me" the book = direct object, me = indirect object, right? Yes. No!

It is impossible for 'me' to be the indirect objectinthe second sentence for one simple fact - 'me' is the object of the preposition 'to.'

"Mike pointed to my tooth" is "my tooth" indirect object or oblique? It is direct object I think

Incorrect - A sentence cannot have an indirect object when it doesn't have a direct object to begin with. Especially in this sentence because the verb 'point' is a verb that can only be intransitive - this means it does not take a direct object.

"We have entered upon a new phase in history" "a new phase in history" is what? Oblique? I would say it is predicator complement.

'upon a new phase in history' is a simple combination of prepositional phrases. 'upon' is the preposition and 'phase' is the object of the preposition. A prepositional phrase is separated into two kinds of phrases - an adjective phrase and an adverb phrase. 'upon a new phase' is an adverb phrase and modifies the verb 'entered' by answering 'entered to what extent?' while 'in history' is an adjective phrase that s modifying the noun 'phase' by answering 'what kind of phase?'

As for the dative case, that works well for Latin, but not in English. English pronouns are separated into the categories of 'nominative' and 'objective' case. I/me he/him she/her they/them etc... Objective case pronouns can be used as any object:

She kissed me - direct object

She gave me a kiss - indirect object

She gave a kiss to me - object of preposition

Kissing me was an experience for her - object of a gerund

Hope this clears thingsup for you.
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