how to use them in a sentence. it is correct to say she has but if you are going to use 'does' then the has becomes have. why?
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because when you use the verb 'to do' as an auxilary verb, it takes the third person

eg She has a cold. (to have is the main verb, there isn't an auxilary so have becomes has.)

eg2 She doesn't have a cold. (to do is the auxilary verb it becomes does, have stays the same)
I do have money.
She does have money.

I have money.
She has money.

Once do or does used, they should go with ' have ' not ' has ' as a rule in grammar.
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Right, you only have to "inflect" one verb in a simple tense (past or present). When there is also a helping verb in the sentence, then this one is inflected while the main verb remains unchanged.

He has money. -> "has" is the only verb, so it has to be flected to show which tense or person is used.

He does have money. -> "does" is the helping verb, it stresses the meaning of "have" in this sentence and shows which tense and person is used, too.

He doesn't have money. -> here, "does" helps to negate the sentence. Also here, it includes the tense and person so it's not necessary to repeat it once more for the full verb.

The same is true for the past tense:
As soon as you have inflected the helping verb, the main verb remains in its infinitive:
He had money.
He did have money.
He didn't have money.
why do we need auxilary word in the sentence? and how to use those auxilaries word? how many auxilary word in english grammar?
There are twenty-eight auxiliary forms in English. (F. R. Palmer: The English Verb)

BE: is, are, am, was, were, ("nonfinite forms" be, being, been),
HAVE: has, have, had, ("nonfinite forms" have, having),
DO: do, does, did,
will, would, shall, should, can, could, may, might, must, ought, dare, need

The auxiliaries BE, HAVE, and DO are inflected for person, number, and tense; the MODALS are invariable.

According to some linguists, all English sentences contain an auxiliary, but the auxiliaries "do", "does", and "did" are deleted and their inflections transferred to the main verb under certain circumstances, usually non-emphatic affirmative declaratives.

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Verbs are conjugated (changed) to fit the sentence. The infinitive (original form) of the verb "has" is "to have".

First Sentence: "She has a dog." The word "has" is the first and only verb in the sentence.

Second Sentence: "She does have a dog." The word "does" is the first verb, and the word "have" is the second verb.

In English (and other languages, like Spanish), the second verb is not conjugated. In the second sentence, "does" is a verb that has been conjugated, so the second verb "have" stays as the infinitive.
Is it correct if I say that " The Cage number has cage number but the cabinets has no cabinets data", Is that a right grammar?
Well, your sentence doesn't make a lot of sense so do you mind if I change the nouns a little?

The cage has a cage number but the cabinets have no files.

the cage - singular so use 'has'.

cabinets - plural so use 'have'.
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