I was reading an article where I met this sentence that is strange to my ear: "It seems that men interrupt women more readily than THEY DO OTHER MEN".

I'd have written:
a) "...than they do it ("it" stays for "(the act of) interruption") to/with/towards other men";
b) "...than they do to/with/towards other men".

As you can see, in my opinion you'd have to use some preposition in any case.

What am I wrong with?

Thanks for your attention (and comprehension)
A first opinion: it's OK to me
"... then they do (=interrupt) men" , but without "other".
No preposition is required. "do" is a 'pro-verb'; it substitutes for a verb mentioned earlier, in this case "interrupt". (I've modified the sentence to leave out the irrelevant features.)

Men interrupt women
more than
men interrupt other men.


Men interrupt women
more than
they(=men) do(=interrupt) other men.

Similarly, we can have the following:

I correct the students' grammar
more than
the students correct my grammar.


I correct the students' grammar
more than
they(=the students) do(=correct) mine(=my grammar).

And also:

Laura eats chocolate ice cream more than she does vanilla.
Beethoven wrote more symphonies than he did operas.
Dogs chase cats more readily than they do other dogs.
Students criticize teachers more often than they do other students.
That year the mayor of the town created more enemies than he did friends.

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Thanks Pieanne.

No, "other" is surely correct and necessary in order to prevent misunderstandings, because the sentence means that: "It seems that men interrupt women more readily than they (the above-mentioned men, not the women - mentioned before too - nor the men and the women) do OTHER men".

In fact "they" is not so clear as a subject in many cases (like here, for example).
But with "other", it looks as if women were only a "subsection" of men, and I think the point here is to make a difference between men and women. Instead of "men", "humans" could be used.
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 CalifJim's reply was promoted to an answer.