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In my mind, most simple explanation =
Does: singular, Do: plural/personal
Has: singular, Have: plural/personal

Obviously it's not THAT simple, but for now let's live by Occams Razor.

Then I recently wrote this sentence:
Does no one have..... etc.
Which then caused me to think over and over the proper grammar for that sentence. My grammar is usually pretty good; and I know the common usage of these words. My confusion comes as I try to figure out the correct usage.

What do you think?
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Hi,

In my mind, most simple explanation =

Does: singular, Do: plural/personal

Has: singular, Have: plural/personal

What do you mean by 'personal'?

I don't understand what difficulty you are considering. As you probably know, the standard is

Do I have . . .

Do you have . . .

Does he have . . .

Do we have . . .

Do they have . . .

Obviously it's not THAT simple, but for now let's live by Occams Razor.

Then I recently wrote this sentence:
Does no one have.. etc.
Which then caused me to think over and over the proper grammar for that sentence. My grammar is usually pretty good; and I know the common usage of these words. My confusion comes as I try to figure out the correct usage.

'No-one' takes the singular form .

Best wishes, Clive
The rules weren't what bothered me. By "personal" I meant {I, you}.
And I realize 'no-one' is singular.

which is why i got confused:

On it's own, it would be:

No-one has...

But when using "does" it becomes:

Does no-one have...
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Hi,

Sorry, I'm confused. Do you have a question you want to ask?

Clive
I said in both posts that using
Does no one have...
sounds correct, but when considering rules, it's very weird.

On it's own, it would be:

No-one has...

But when using "does" it becomes:

Does no-one have...

This is my question. Is there justification for doing this? Alternately, I was just looking for input, nothing really depends on my figuring this out.
I found the correct description I was looking for in another thread:
Grammar GeekHas is used ONLY with third person singular: he, she, it.
I have, you have, we have, they have, he has.
In normal speech, "anybody" would take the third person singular: If anyone has a converter, could you ...
However, as CB says in the post above yours, once you have a form of "to do" ("Does anybody..."), you use the base form of the verb: have.
He swims. Does he swim?
He has it. Does he have it?
She has one. Did she always have it?

Though I am still curious if anyone else feels this is weird.
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Hi,

Tom has . . . Does Tom have . . .

With the auxiliary verb 'do/does', the infinitive form 'have' is used.

Does that help?

Clive
Hi, and welcome to 2015.

The reason is that the "have" in "does no-one have" is in the infinitive - it's NOT the present tense, so it not conjugated and doesn't need to agree with the subject (no-one).