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"Educated Americans have a tendency to think that intelligence can be directly assessed through the surrogate of compliance with the rules of Standard English grammar"

http://languagelog.ldc.upenn.edu/nll/?p=1022#more-1022

Is that true? Do educated Americans have that tendency?
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I think so. We tend to assume that people are more intelligent if they speak correctly and less intelligent if they speak poorly. Proper grammar is a mark of a good education, so those who are more educated will see that others who speak with proper grammar must therefore be more intelligent.

I'm not defending this as a criteria, but I am confirming that that's what many of us think.

I'm frankly surprised that you'd ask. I'm sure its true in many other countries, and it may be a sort of universal assumption.
Gordon, really? You equate standard English with intelligence? I equate it with a standard education, but not intelligence. Perhaps because I've spent too much time editing the work of highly intelligent scientists and engineers who specialized too quickly in their field and can't write a lick.

I know I'm going to regret posting this, because now it will appear on my "My Discussion" list after Milky/Molly/Metal/Anonymous makes post after post arguing and counter-arguing, but I did want to go on the record with my view.
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<I equate it with a standard education, but not intelligence. >

So would I.
Anonymous"Educated Fanatic Americans people have a tendency to think that intelligence every characteristic of a person can be directly assessed through the surrogate of compliance with the rules of Standard English grammar that define their fanaticism"
As Old Man Gordon pointed out, it's universal, and so it's not surprising.
GG- please note that I don't necessarily equate the two, but I do think that many people do. Engineers and scientists would be in a clearly different category. When we meet someone in daily life who is a native English speaker and that person doesn't use proper subject verb agreement, I'm sure that we suspect that person MAY BE less intelligent.

I should also ask...are we talking about simple general grammatical points or the pickiest and exceptional usages of minor points? If someone misuses further/farther or has a dangling participle, it's a different issue.
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whether adverbs go in between the meaningless marker to and the accompanying plain verb in an infinitival clause.
This comment from the referenced article was interesting. Meaningless? Shall we drop the to of all infinitives? May as well, according to this.
AnonymousDo educated Americans have that tendency?
I don't know of any body of data that's been collected to confirm or deny the claim. Personally, I know Americans who have that tendency and those who don't. The "don'ts" seem to outnumber the "dos", but that's only anecdotal evidence, and I wouldn't base my doctoral dissertation on it!

Emotion: smile
CJ
CalifJim
whether adverbs go in between the meaningless marker to and the accompanying plain verb in an infinitival clause.
This comment from the referenced article was interesting.  Meaningless?  Shall we drop the to of all infinitives?  May as well, according to this.
Pullum isn't arguing that we should drop the to of all infinitives. He's just saying that the to has no semantic content, but I'm sure he'd agree that it's grammatically necessary.
Whilst it may be true that on the whole the amount of education a person receives is proportional to the level of his intelligence, the corollary, that the level of ones intelligience is proportional to the education one has received, is not true. Any educated person who believes the contrary is overeducated for his intelligence.
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