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What is the difference between the following?

  • I've finished with all of my work.
  • I've finished all of my work.
  • I've finished all my work.
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healerI've finished with all of my work.

'Finish with' could have several meanings.

1) to no longer need to use sth:

I've finished with the book. You can have it.

2) stop doing something:

I've finished with gambling.

3) to bring sth to an end/to come to an end:

The symphony finishes with a flourish.

So it doesn't fit the context of your first sentence as a phrasal verb. You could say, "I'm finished with all my work."

Sentences two and three have basically the same meaning.

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Persian Learner
healerI've finished with all of my work.

'Finish with' could have several meanings.

1) to longer need to use sth:

I've finished with the book. You can have it.


Did you mean that he/she spent a long period of time reading the book before finishing it?

I'm asking because of the context of the second sentence: "You can have it". I understand that he/she no longer needs the book.

MoonriseDid you mean that he/she spent a long period of time reading the book before finishing it?

Not necessarily a long period of time. It could be just cramming for an exam, reading a chapter, or any other use that could take as short as a few hours, if not minutes; context should determine that. But the basic idea is that their job with the book is finished.

'Have it' means take it or use it.

Persian Learner
MoonriseDid you mean that he/she spent a long period of time reading the book before finishing it?

Not necessarily a long period of time. It could be just cramming for an exam, reading a chapter, or any other use that could take as short as a few hours, if not minutes; context should determine that. But the basic idea is that their job with the book is finished.

'Have it' means take it or use it.

It's clear. Thank you very much. So, was it an oversight when you wrote the following:

Persian Learner
healerI've finished with all of my work.

'Finish with' could have several meanings.

1) to longer need to use sth:

I've finished with the book. You can have it.


Based on your answer, I understand that the sentence should have been "To no longer needs to use sth."Isn't it?

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MoonriseBased on your answer, I understand that the sentence should have been "To no longer needs to use sth."Isn't it?

Good catch! I'll just fix the typo. Now can you spot one in yours? ☺

Persian Learner
MoonriseBased on your answer, I understand that the sentence should have been "To no longer needs to use sth."Isn't it?

Good catch! I'll just fix the typo. Now can you spot one in yours? ☺

It wasn't a catch actually. I wouldn't waste time asking about typos. I really thought you meant it, especially since you've mentioned that the term has several meanings. That's why I was wondering about the example. I felt there was a contradiction. Now I got it, of course. ☺

About mine, maybe the space before the quotation marks. If you meant "sth", I don't consider it a typo because I quoted your sentence; I typed it purposefully like yours. It's an abbreviation for "something", as I know. However, I started the quote with a capital letter because of using "". I'm aware that you typed it "to".

There could be a grammatical mistake in my last question, but I don't consider it a typo, though. I just got confused about using a tag question with negation after "should have been".

MoonriseTo no longer needs

I meant this.

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MoonriseIt wasn't a catch actually.

Now I see why it troubled you.

MoonriseThere could be a grammatical mistake in my last question, but I don't consider it a typo, though. I just got confused about using a tag question with negation after "should have been".

I just enjoyed the irony that typos/oversights can create; you somehow caught one in my phrasing but didn't notice one in yours. But I understand that 'no' being left out brought about some confusion in your understanding of the explanation put forward in my answer because it didn't occur to you as an oversight.

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