For what is a man profited, if he shall gain the whole world, and lose his own soul? or what shall a man give in exchange for his soul? - Mathew 16:26

I believe "is" above gives the same meaning as 'has' and perhaps is used in an archaic sense. Do you find it correct? Please let me know.
Correct, yes. Archaic? Perhaps. The KJ version would be 'for what profiteth a man...', I believe.

It's a use of the passive: he is profited by his actions; he is compensated for his work; [active: what has he profited]
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Thank you, Philip.
Philip[active: what has he profited]
In my humble view, it seems to me it's still in a passive form. There should be something (his struggle, hard work, actions, etc) he has profited from. Right? Couldn't it be that "he" is the object of those 'profits'? What has he profited (by his wrongdoings)? Doesn't it make a passive?

I have checked my M-W 'profit' could both be an intrasitive and trasitive verbs.

Please guide me. Thanks.
Jackson6612Doesn't it make a passive?

Right. I guess you missed part of my original answer: It's a use of the passive: he is profited by his actions;

[active: what has he profited]
Thanks, Philip. I belive you have missed the main point of my last posting.Emotion: smile What tells you that the quoted sentence is in active? Please tell me. Thanks.
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