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Hello

When we decide whether a verb takes a gerund or infinitive, can we quess what it takes by thing whether the verb precedes the verbal or not?

I mean

-"regret" is the second action, whereas "leaving the school" is the first action. So "regret" takes a gerund.

On the other hand

-"plan" is the first action, whereas "leaving the school" is the first action. So "plan" takes an infinitive.

To what extent can we generalize this would-be rule?

Do I make myself clear?

Thank you.
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I understand the question.

I regret leaving the school = I left ( I left and then I regretted)
I regret to leave the school (a little strange-sounding) = I will leave (I regret now, before I leave)

I remembered giving my wife some roses = (I gave and then I remembered)
I remembered to give my wife some roses = (I remembered and then I gave)

For this sort of verb your rule seems to work fine, Seyf (and I don't know how many verbs are in this set-- forget, remember, regret...?). There are, of course, many more verbs which can take either gerund or infinitive, but for which the rule is irrelevant:

I saw him come/ I saw him coming
I continued to tapdance/ I continued tapdancing
I tried to email you/ I tried emailing you
I like skydiving/ I like to skydive

etc.
Do I make myself clear?

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Using the present tense form 'do' makes you sound, at the least, a bit strident, Seyfihoca. This is something a mother would say to a child she's reprimanding; a Principal admonishing a student, or the like.

What you want here is, "Have I made myself clear?
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JtT

I am really embarassed of what I said. But this is what a Turkish learner/teacher can say with his humble knowledge. Thank you for correcting me.
Thank you for ypur explanations.

Of course there are exceptions.

As a learner of English, I have always thought that a grammatical usage in English can not be without an explicable reason. So there must be a reason for the usages of gerund and infinitive after certain verbs/nouns/adjective and certain expression.

So there must be a reaspn as to why "appreciate" takes a gerund, while "promise" is used with to+infinitive.

or must there?
I don't believe so, Seyf. In some subgroups we can discern patterns (as with the remember/regret group we just looked at). Overall, though, I would think it is historical accident in the development of, especially, phrasal verbs and collocations.

You have noticed, I am sure, that most grammar books have lists of the commoner verbs that take gerunds and/or infinitives-- this would not be the case if there were a neat overriding rule or two.
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Mr M:
You have noticed, I am sure, that most grammar books have lists of the commoner verbs that take gerunds and/or infinitives-- this would not be the case if there were a neat overriding rule or two.

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My 'sentenaments', exactly, Mr M. But I have to allow that Seyfihoca may have a point; there may well be some larger pattern that has so far eluded all those who study the language.

Hell, we're not all that far from the days of having just cast out a whole lotta witch-doctor stuff. There's still some of it lurking around in the fairytales of prescriptivists.
Well, if you say "I appreciated talking with you", the talking occured before, so that you could appreciate it, hence a gerund, and in " I promised to be there", you promised first, hence infinitive in "to be".
Your rule seems to be ok there tooEmotion: smile
Hi, JT.
I can see you don't like rules much and I agree with you. Rules are too restrictive, hamper one's "feeling" the language and deprive him/her of the pleasure of speaking the language. That is a major problem with English learners in my country - they can recite mile-long lists of rules but they simply cannot speak. That's because they start thinking of rules whenever they try to say something. However, non-native speakers need guidelines to learn a language. Probably balance is the key.
As for Seyfihoca's "rule", I think it is very interesting. I've never thought about that. I'm just tempted - linguistically - to think of more such words. And if we are to elaborate on Seyfihoca's assumption, I think we can place Mr. M's four examples in a third group - verbs followed by other verbs that express simultaneous actions.
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