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1. If she meets a priest, she would be married.

2. If she meets a priest , she would get married.

Are these sentences grammatically correct and give same meaning? When should we use the 'get' form as in the sentence #2?
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To be married is to have either a wife or a husband; it's a state.

To get married is an action, it's going from being single to having a husband or a wife.

Your 1st sentence doesn't seem logical to me: meeting a priest has never made anybody married. Your second sentence makes a little more sense, but I would rephrase it as "they will get married as soon as they find a priest", or something like that.
Hi,

If she meets a priest , she would get married.

Well, she seems willing enough. She'll be disappointed when she realizes that priests, at least Roman Catholic ones, are not allowed to get married.

Best wishes, Clive
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1. If she meets a priest, she would be married.

2. If she meets a priest , she would get married.

Yes, I agree that both sentences are 'grammatically' correct and that the first one indicates a state whereas the second an action. Now it should be clear there's quite a big difference between both ontological notions. Having said that, my idea is both sentences read oddly. I would think the writer wanted to say things like: she would be/get married in front of a priest/ registrar (rather than in front of her parents, as that is against Christian tradition and does not legitimatise the marriage). I am not a native speaker either, but I hope this at least helps!!!
Thanks for your response, Pieanne. It is a religious sentiment in my home town that if one meets a priest and get his blessings, soon that person would get married.
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Actually the grammar in these sentences is not correct. You are using a conditional structure but mixing 1st and 2nd conditional. See examples below:

1st conditional uses the present tense + will. eg: If she meets a priest she will get married.

2nd conditional uses the past tense + would. eg: If she met a priest whe would get married.