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Hi teachers,

It demonstrates how rising powers, traditional American allies, having watched this administration in action, have decided that there's no cost in lining up with America's enemies and no profit in lining up with a U.S. president given to apologies and appeasement.

1. Does "given to" modify "a U.S. president"?

2. Suppose it does, is "given to" equal "who has given to" or "who is given to"?

Thank you.

Tinanam
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1-- Yes
2-- No. 'with tendencies toward'
Comments  
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Hi Mister Micawber,

I'm sorry I miswrote the second question.

"It demonstrates how rising powers, traditional American allies, having watched this administration in action, have decided that there's no cost in lining up with America's enemies and no profit in lining up with a U.S. president given to apologies and appeasement."

Is it correct to rephrase with ".....with a U.S. president who is given to apologies and appeasement."?

Thank you.

Tinanam
Yes, that is what is elided.
Hi Mister Micawber,

Thank you.

Tinanam
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