Hi to all!

During our English lessons at the uni, I've again come across something I'm curious about. It's in the sentence: "Any factors other than price which might influence demand for A GOOD or service are grouped together as the underlying conditions of demand".

As far as I know, the noun "goods" is always plural and it cannot be singular. Is it a mistake in the textbook, or do I have out-of-date knowledge?
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Comments  (Page 3) 
There is no error in this sentence. When referring to a single 'good' or 'service', this is standard English. The 'a' is used because the good or service has not been identified, i.e. 'a' refers to a general good or service.

Native speaker and English language teacher.

The normal usage would be goods. Economists might refer to a good which would be understood to mean the singular of goods in the context of a lecture. If you are talking to ordinary people then use goods every time. eg the goods have arrived.

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I completely agree with you.

You could, of course, say 'a piece of goods.' Good as the singular of goods is of recent origin, and laughable.