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Hi there,

Can you explain to me why here is used without "ed" I mean theory? please

I will have someone look at it. (After have is supposed to be with "ed" all the time??)I had someone look at it this morning. (After have is supposed to be with "ed" all the time??)I will have it done. (Make sense to me)I have repaired it. (make sense to me) Thanks in advance.
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"I have repaired it" is present perfect tense. Your other sentences use causative "have", which is completely different. There are two causative patterns here:

"have someone do something", which takes the infinitive, e.g. "do".
"have something done (by someone)", which takes the past participle, e.g. "done".

I had someone look at it.
I had it looked at by someone.

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Please review the patterns of the causative verbs.

https://www.thoughtco.com/what-is-causative-verb-1689833

https://www.learn-english-today.com/lessons/lesson_contents/verbs/causative-verbs-make-get-have-let.html

Students: We have free audio pronunciation exercises.
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GPYI had someone look at it.

May I ask a question, please. Is it OK to say: " I had someone to look at it"?

If so, does it have the same meaning as " I had someone look at it"?


Thank you

 AlpheccaStars's reply was promoted to an answer.
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anonymousMay I ask a question, please. Is it OK to say: " I had someone to look at it"?
If so, does it have the same meaning as " I had someone look at it"?

"I had someone to look at it" is possible in a sense like "Someone who was able to look at it was known/available to me." This is different altogether from the causative. There may be another somewhat marginal interpretation closer to the causative, but it is not a standard causative like "I had someone look at it". In one interpretation, "had someone" may have a connotation like "had someone visit / call round". Opinions about this second interpretation may vary.

GPY
anonymousMay I ask a question, please. Is it OK to say: " I had someone to look at it"?
If so, does it have the same meaning as " I had someone look at it"?

"I had someone to look at it" is possible in a sense like "Someone who was able to look at it was known/available to me." This is different altogether from the causative. There may be another somewhat marginal interpretation closer to the causative, but it is not a standard causative like "I had someone look at it". In one interpretation, "had someone" may have a connotation like "had someone visit / call round". Opinions about this second interpretation may vary.


Regarding what I colored in green, so, does that mean that the person in this term "I had someone look at it"

was not known or available?

I'm a little confused because the sentence tense is in the past. And he would have had the person looked at it.


Let's change the sentence and keep it on the same rule:

-I had someone go with me.

-I had someone to go with me.


Does it mean that the person in the first case wasn't known or available to me, but it's known or available in the second sentence?


Thank you

anonymousRegarding what I colored in green, so, does that mean that the person in this term "I had someone look at it" was not known or available?

No.

There are two different meanings.

1. I found / located someone to look at it.

In American English, I use "found" not "had".

For example, I have an antique grandfather clock and it needed a minor repair. It is very valuable, and clockmakers with the required expertise are not common.

If I use "had", it implies that I own the business and one of the employees could do the job. She was immediately available and "on hand."

I had (in my employment) someone to look at it.

The task may or may not be done. I only found someone who is competent to do it.

2. I had someone look at it.

The person looked at it in the past. The task is complete.

anonymousLet's change the sentence and keep it on the same rule:

I had someone go with me.

Situation: I was going for an eye exam, and the doctor would dilate my eyes. Because I would not be able to see to drive home, I asked my friend to drive me. My friend did that yesterday.

-I had someone to go with me.

I located a friend who agreed to drive me to the eye doctor and back home again. It is likely that it happened in the past, but maybe it didn't happen.

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anonymousLet's change the sentence and keep it on the same rule:
-I had someone go with me.
-I had someone to go with me.
Does it mean that the person in the first case wasn't known or available to me, but it's known or available in the second sentence?

No. "I had someone go with me" means, in a broad sense, "I caused someone to go with me" (hence "causative"). You asked or instructed them to go with you, or you arranged for them to go with you, or something like that. The other person is, of course, "known or available", but this is just an obvious or self-evident implication, not the main purpose of the meaning.

"I had someone to go with me" means that e.g. a friend or companion was available and able to accompany you. It does not mean that you "caused" them to go, just that they were "there".

Good clarification! I read it slowly and carefully and I think I got it now. It's interesting, I was always look at them as the same meaning.

Thank you very much AlpheccaStars.

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