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Good evening, folks.

"I do not necessarily agree with what is said in the article."
AND
"In the article, I do not necessarily agree with what is said."

The idea is that if we transpose the prepositional phrase (in the article), does the meaning change?

Please, give your answers along with justification.

Thank you.

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An introductory phrase applies to the subject of the sentence, "I". The phrase is supposed to apply to "what is said". The meaning does not so much change as die. You can't put that phrase there.

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Thanks. Any other replies, please?

"In the article, I do not necessarily agree with what is said." This implies to me that you wrote the article or are at least quoted in it.

Clive

Clive

"In the article, I do not necessarily agree with what is said." This implies to me that you wrote the article or are at least quoted in it.

Clive

Neither. It's not about who wrote it... It's about whether there is a difference if I move the prepositional phrase or not.

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Your question was this. It's about whether there is a difference if I move the prepositional phrase or not.

My answer was this. if you move the prepositionall phrase like this"In the article, I do not necessarily agree with what is said" it implies to me that you wrote the article or are at least quoted in it. I call that a difference.

Clive

Ok, thank you. What about this "I don't necessarily agree with what is said in the article"?? What is implied to you in this case?

What about this "I don't necessarily agree with what is said in the article"?? What is implied to you in this case?

It implies that I didn't write the article.

I don't agree . . . States my opinion clearly.

I don't necessarily agree . . . Implies that there are circumstances under which I might agree

Clive

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