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He told me a few weeks ago that he had been swimming a lot. And

He told me a few weeks ago that he has been swimming a lot..

Is there a difference and are both grammatically accurate? Whats the difference and what does each sentence mean? Can the 2nd one mean there's a likely chance that he's continued to swim to this day?

THank you.
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If he is still swimming a lot, then either will work.

The first can apply (1) to when he is still likely continuing to swim (regression of 'have' with the reporting verb) or (2) to when he quit swimming after he told you.

The second applies as you said - when he is still likely continuing to swim.
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Mister MicawberIf he is still swimming a lot, then either will work.

The first can apply (1) to when he is still likely continuing to swim (regression of 'have' with the reporting verb) or (2) to when he quit swimming after he told you.

The second applies as you said - when he is still likely continuing to swim.
But if he is swimming even to present day, then why wouldn't either of them work? Can't the 2nd one mean the he's still swimming a lot?
Please read my previous post again, PJ.