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I understand the transitive verb after ‘had’ or ‘have’ always in infinitive form. I’m not too sure about intransitive verb though.

Could someone check if the following grammatically correct and mean the same thing? Thanks!

We had eight persons DIED yesterday.

We had eight persons dead yesterday.

We had eight persons who died yesterday.

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healerWe had eight persons DIED yesterday.

No, it should be "We had eight persons die yesterday."

healerWe had eight persons dead yesterday.

Possible, but slightly different in meaning.

healerWe had eight persons who died yesterday.

Also possible, but open to slightly different interpretations. The first sentence is neater, if that's what you mean.

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healerI understand the transitive verb after ‘had’ or ‘have’ always in infinitive form. I’m not too sure about intransitive verb though.

With causative "have" the transitivity of the following verb doesn't matter.

The doctor had the patient rest for several hours. (intransitive rest)
The doctor had the patient bend his knee several times. (transitive bend)

healerWe had eight persons DIED yesterday.

No.

We had eight persons die yesterday.

But this is not causative have. It's experiential have.
It doesn't say that we caused eight persons to die yesterday.
It says that we experienced (observed) the fact that eight persons died yesterday (presumably in our care).


As it turns out, the grammar is the same for both kinds of have.

From the viewpoint of the crime boss who planned it:

We had a couple of guys rob the bank last week.

From the viewpoint of the bank employees who experienced it:

We had a couple of guys rob the bank last week.

CJ

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GPYopen to slightly different interpretations

Thanks! What could be the difference in meaning or nuances?

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CalifJimAs it turns out, the grammar is the same for both kinds of have.From the viewpoint of the crime boss who planned it:We had a couple of guys rob the bank last week.From the viewpoint of the bank employees who experienced it:We had a couple of guys rob the bank last week.

Thanks! I can't see any difference in the two examples given. Are you saying the grammar and the wording are the same regardless of who sees it?

By the way, is my grammar correct in the last sentence as to "regardless of who sees it"?

healerThanks! I can't see any difference in the two examples given. Are you saying the grammar and the wording are the same regardless of who sees it?

Yep. The grammar and wording are the same, but depending on the context, the meaning can be different. In the given examples it's either "hired someone to rob the bank" or "had the misfortune of experiencing a bank robbery".

healerBy the way, is my grammar correct in the last sentence as to "regardless of who sees it"?

Yes. Perfect.

CJ

On the other hand, the verb in the sentence below is correct, isn’t it? It is not in past tense, but passive voice.

We had the bank robbed last week.

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healer

On the other hand, the verb in the sentence below is correct, isn’t it? It is not in past tense, but passive voice.

We had the bank robbed last week.

It's in the past tense because it's "we had", not "we have". And that's active voice because it's "we had" and not "we were had".

However, the second component (the bank robbed) is the passive. It comes from "The bank was robbed last week".

CJ