+0

"He has also confirmed that his family does not, nor ever has, received dividends from these companies."

(open democracy website.)

Why is comma used between "has" and "received" in the sentence above?

Is it grammatically correct that the past participle "received" is the main verb in the VP "does not"?

+1

He has also confirmed that his family does not, nor ever has, received dividends from these companies.

This sentence is ungrammatical. If we drop the coordinate "nor ever has", we get the ungrammatical *"does not received dividends ... ."

It should probably be:

He has also confirmed that his family [does not receive ___i], [nor ever has received ___i] dividends from these companiesi.


Note that “dividends from these companies” is direct object of "receive(d)". It functions as a ‘postnuclear’ element that is co-referenced to gap '___' in each of the bracketed coordinates.