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He denies that any of his employees have been redundant.

He denies that any of his employees has been redundant.

Are both sentences above grammatical?

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"have been" is the natural choice. Our normal inclination is to use plural verb with "any of + plural noun". Singular verb may be possible if there is a clear restriction to a single item, e.g. "Is any of these passports yours?". Even in such cases, though, people may still feel a natural tendency to use plural verb.

The idea of denying that employees "have been redundant" is odd.

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Thank you for the reply.

GPYThe idea of denying that employees "have been redundant" is odd.

Hmm ... I guess it may be possible in a certain context. E.g. someone takes a team of their employees to do a job for someone else. Then that person complains that they are paying for more workers than are actually needed for the job.

GPY guess it may be possible in a certain contex

I wonder whether he could deny that he didn't fire any of his employees.

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tkacka15that he didn't fire any of his employees.

Correction:

that he fired some of his employees.

tkacka15
tkacka15that he didn't fire any of his employees.

Correction:

that he fired some of his employees.

No, that would have to be "He denies that any of his employees have been made redundant."

GPYNo, that would have to be "He denies that any of his employees have been made redundant."

I see. Thank you for the explanation.

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