Could you please check the grammar in regard to the tense of the following sentences both with intransitive verb and transitive verb? I have problem mainly with intransitive verbs. Those with transitive verbs seems quite straightforward. I would like in particular to have those without relative pronouns work. The word 'have' in the sentences below does not mean 'to cause to'. I just want to say it so happened. I believe the infinitive would be used for the meaning of "to cause to". All the sentences refer to something that has already happened. Thanks for your comments.
-You have/had a parcel arrive/arrived today.
-You have/had a parcel that/which arrived today.
-You have/had a student came late.
-You have/had a student that/who came late.
-I have/had my friend come/came today.
-You have/had it done today.
healerThe word 'have' in the sentences below does not mean 'to cause to'. I just want to say it so happened. I believe the infinitive would be used for the meaning of "to cause to". All the sentences refer to something that has already happened.
It doesn't matter if it means 'cause' or if it's saying that you experienced something. The grammar is the same.
You had a parcel arrive today. (experience)
You had a student come late. (experience)
I had a friend come today. (experience or cause)
I had it done today. (cause)
Only the last one has the passive, and thus a past participle (done), after the 'had' clause.
CJ
Yes.
No. "You have a parcel arriving today."
Technically or grammatically speaking, the above two sentences could be a matter of causation, couldn't it? You might say so in view of probability or statistics.
Can I say "I had it do today."? That is 'do' for the meaning of 'reasonable' or 'suffice'.
By the way, can we have the question mark after the quote like the first sentence in the last paragraph? I have heard that we don't put full stop after the closing quote if there is already one before the quote.
Thanks again.
I'm getting contradictory information.
I was thinking I could say "You have..." or "You will have...".It's hard to imagine, but yes, that's a (remote) possibility. Since the grammar is the same for both situations, only context can disambiguate this kind of sentence.
No. In that meaning you can't use that construction. Idioms like "That will do" are often impossible to say or write in every possible construction or tense. When you switch them around like that, either they become meaningless or they sound awful to us native speakers.
See my correction above.
Yes. You can put the full stop outside the closing quote.
1a) I said "I'll have it done today".
1b) I said "I'll have it done today."
2) Did you say, "I'll have it done today"? (no full stop here)
3) I asked, "Will you have it done today?" (no full stop here)
Note the difference between 2) and 3).
Consult a style guide appropriate to the region where you live. American and British punctuation can differ, and I'm not enough of an expert on punctuation to explain how and why it works that way. You can do whichever you want on this forum. Just don't put more than one punctuation mark at the end of a sentence unless one of them is a closing quotation mark (or parenthesis).
CJ