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Could someone please help me with the construction in the first part of these sentences?

     Having finished his homework, he went to bed.

     Having been delayed by heavy traffic, she was late for work.

Some students asked me to explain when and how to use this construction ‘having + past participle’ etc.

Does it have a name? I remember it from studying Latin a long time ago, but cannot think what it is called.

Many thanks,

Graham

PS - this is my first post. If it is in the wrong forum - apologies.
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Comments  (Page 2) 
Hi there,
Greetings from Poland.

We, on the other hand, do have a construct that seems to be an precise equivalent of its English counterpart, we call it: Imiesłów przysłówkowy uprzedni - literally "adverbial prior/anterior participle".

Having finished his homework, he went to bed - Skończywszy [having finished] swoją [his] pracą domową [homework], (on) [he - a conjectural subject] poszedł do łóżka [went to bed].

Thought I would share this with you. Best regards.
Anonymous"Having finished his homework, he went to bed".
This is my two cents on the topic.
If we put this sentence under a grammatical comb, it is incorrect in my opinion..
First of all, without the "perfect gerund" construction, this type of phrase (some called clause) is commonly known as participle clause which functions as an adverbial modifier to the main clause. It is also termed "reduced clause" which by itself is non temporal unless it is tagged with a time marker. e.g.
Having problem starting her car, Mary was late for work yesterday Having problem - is non-temporal, but relative to " last night " and the verb " was " made the sentence past tense.

Whenever having problem with my car, I usually call my best friend Mike. The general present context in this sentence makes the participle phrase "present".

On the other hand, perfect gerund construction is a bit more complicated. To make the above sentence correct, I believe it needs to be changed to: Having had finished his homework, he went to bed. The reason is because "went" to bed is "past. "Having finished " suggests relative present which is conflicting. Generally speaking, if we can convey the meaning without having to use the "perfect gerund " construction, leave it alone. But that's just my opinion.
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Thanks so much
Having Done something is referred to as the Perfect Active Participle. Having been + past participle, i.e. Having been done is called the Perfect Passive Participle.
Example: Having been warned about the bandits, he left his valuables at home. Both structures emphasize that the action expressed by the participle happened before the action expressed by the next verb.
Sharan
AnonymousHaving Done something is referred to as the Perfect Active Participle. Having been + past participle, i.e. Having been done is called the Perfect Passive Participle.
AnonymousExample: Having been warned about the bandits, he left his valuables at home.
This is a perfect participle clause which functions adverbially. It is understood as it stands. But I would say " Despite having been warned/ being warned about the burglaries in the neighborhood, he still left the valuables at home.
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"Having had finished" is impossible in principle!

Vlad
Grammarfreak
OK, first my credentials: MA in Applied Linguistics / Language Center Teacher at one of Europe's top universities.
Now to business: "Having finished his homework, he went to bed" is correct.
Exactly as you say, it is a participle clause playing an adverbial role. The clause grammar will remain the same whatever time you're referring to because it takes the main clause as its temporal reference point. The only way "having had" would be correct is if the main verb was "to have" as in "Having had her lunch, she allowed herself a few minutes' break".
Cheers