When someone visits, the secretary approaches his boss, saying (1)"He came to see you"
How about saying (2)"He has come to see you"?

Is there any difference of nuances between (1) and (2)?
Does (b) imply that he has been being expected to come?
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Comments  (Page 2) 

But I guess the natives would use "He came to see you", when the visitor(he) is still in the office waiting for the boss(you).
No, we wouldn't.
Typical expressions are
eg This gentleman is here to see you. (if the visitor can hear)
eg Someone is here to see you (if the visitor can't hear)

Referring to me as 'he' when I can hear is considered rude.

I see.... I see...

I think I;v got it...

And also, "Referring to me as 'he' when I can hear is considered rude" is what I've never seen in a grammar book.

Thanks so much, Clive!!
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I came to see you

I came to see you This is not natural English in such a context, in which we are already face to face. If I am standing in your office, it is already obvious that I have come to see you.

A more natural utterance is eg Hello, I'd like to talk to you about the XYZ project if you have a few minutes.