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Does the highlighted sentence below say "Ernst's own explanations on his paintings and his texts are dependent on Freud's arguments"?


Context:

Ernst for one employed a method of composition inspired by Freud’s theory of dream formation, his painting Pietà or Revolution by Night, 1923, using one of Freud’s case histories, ‘the Wolf Man’, as one of its sources. Freud named this patient the Wolf Man because of the dream that brought him to Freud, in which he saw six or seven white wolves sitting on a tree. Although Freud’s attribution of this dream to his patient’s Oedipal conflict and to a fantasy of the primal scene, i.e. parental copulation, has since become a controversial interpretation, the point I am dealing with here is that Freud’s narrative provided a visual motif for Ernst. As Malcolm Gee says, ‘the congruities between the history of the Wolf Man and the “dream thoughts” of Ernst’s Pietà are such that, whether or not Ernst’s childhood memories were true in substance, his elaboration of both painting and texts was dependent on the argument of Freud’s essay.’

Comments  
cattttDoes the highlighted sentence below say "Ernst's own explanations on his paintings and his texts are dependent on Freud's arguments"?

That's how I read it.