Why is that we say: "I heard someone call me." and not "I heard someone called me." since it is in the past tense.

Also, if the time is given, should we say: "I heard someone call me yesterday." or "I heard someone called me yesterday."

Thanks and regards.
This depends to some extent on the exact meaning,

"I heard some one call me" can be accurate, if it refers to the idea of someone shouting to you, and you literally hearing them at the time.

The other one would probably be more accurate as "I heard THAT someone called me." Then it is a different meaning, suggesting that another person has told you that you had a phone message.

Adding "yesterday" makes no difference to the two possible meanings not to the grammatical structures.
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Thks Suzi for your reply.

Let's change the verb 'call' to 'sing'.

Am I right to say : "I heard Joyce sing." is correct as opposed to "I heard Joyce sang."

But why is it so since it is already in the past tense.

Thanks and regards.
It is similar to what I said before.

" I heard THAT Joyce sang" is the right way to write it, and the addition of "that" shows again how you are not hearing her sing directly. It suggests that someone has told you about Joyce's singing activities.

The point about sing and sang is a bit more complex and I do not know how to clearly explain it.
See, feel, notice, hear are basically examples of sensory verbs. When we use these verbs the experience is personal. It is in base form because the action is already implied in the subject. So, when we say: I heard him sing, it conveys that you personally witnessed or heard the action, you witnessed the singing itself. I hope this helps despite me having a hard time articulating it.
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good question!