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Hey how r u guys doing? Well i'll get straight to the point I've been reading

this book...And it's the hardest book in the world, belive me.....Anyway

I couldn't understand a few sentences I'll put them up here now so please tell me

whether these sentences are grammarly (sounds weird) correct and why it is....

1. 'After a few drops of anti-foam oil have been carefully added, the bubbles

disappear.'

2. '.... which were only interrupted by the bell from without proclaiming Mr Sedley's

return from the City, before whom George received a signal to retreat.'

Thanx a lot you guys have been a lot of help ^^
Comments  
(1) seems grammatically correct.

(2) seems wierd; I would write 'before which', where 'which' still could be either the bell or the return. The writer intends that the 'whom' refer to 'Mr. Sedley', of course-- 'George received a signal to retreat before Mr. Sedley'-- and this phrase ('to retreat before + sb') though a bit stilted, is still current. However, the structure of this sentence does not make this apparent.
Thanx a lot for your help. I really appreciate it. Now that I have a reliable site where I

can ask questions whenever I need to relieves me. Thanx once again. However! I have

another question ^^ I hope you'll give me a clear explanation on this one as well.

Thanx ^^.

'...which were only interrupted by the bell from without proclaiming Mr Sedley's

return from the City'

I still don't understand this part. I understand until the 'by the bell' part, but after that I'm

not sure why 'without proclaiming' is in there. Please give me a clear explanation. Once

again I thank you. ^^
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'Without' means 'outside'. The bell is outside and its ringing is announcing Mr. Sedley's return.
About the first one - can I say "After a few drops of anti-foam oil had been carefully added, the bubbles disappeared"?
Yes, you can, Maverick.
Site Hint: Check out our list of pronunciation videos.
I really want to thank you for answering all my questions so well. Thank you.

I have another question. Remember this sentence?

'After a few drops of anti-foam oil have been carefully added, the bubbles

disappear.'

how is this gramatically correct? 'have been' is a past form while 'disappear' is a present

form. I am quite weak on grammar. Thanks for sacrificing your time. ^^
Sure, it's correct. It says 'after'. Many complex or compound sentences can have mixed tenses, depending on the relative times of events within them:

'I am painting the house this week, and then I'm going to paint the garage.'
'After I had carefully studied the plans, I asked the staff to approve them.'
'If you leave now, I will follow you to the ends of the earth.'